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3 years ago

Which statement best describes the association between variable X and variable Y?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Alona [7]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

The given graph represents perfect negative association between variable X and variable Y.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given graph represents the relation between the variable X and variable Y.

From the given graph it is clear that all the points lie on a straight line. It means the graph represents the perfect association.

The value of Y decreases as X increases. It means variable X and variable Y negatively associated.

Therefore the given graph represents perfect negative association between variable X and variable Y.

kicyunya [14]3 years ago

4 0

There are no choices but the association is :
Very strong negative linear association

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because an item is slightly dameged, a stock clerk reduced the price by $6. this represents 15% reduction.what was the original

Paul [167]

Answer:

$40

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

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2 years ago

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erik [133]

If you have snap you can use that just hold down on screen your problem

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Prove your work what is 1/12 of a dozen Branliest

a_sh-v [17]

Answer:

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