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3 years ago

A parallelogram is shown below:

Mathematics

2 answers:

shepuryov [24]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

AREA

Step-by-step explanation:

area of parallelogram equal to BD into 8 feet into 3 by 4 6 feet

the area of the triangle ADB equal to the area of triangle DBC be equal to 3

Ket [755]3 years ago

3 0

Part A

9x8/9=72/9=8 square feet

Part B

Draw a line diagonally either between point A&C or B&D, this would make 2 triangles

The area of the triangle would be half of the full area so 8/2= 4 feet square

Could you put me as brainliest?

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Z = x4 + x2y, x = s + 2t − u, y = stu2; ∂z ∂s , ∂z ∂t , ∂z ∂u when s = 1, t = 4, u = 5

kiruha [24]

$x(1,4,5)=4$
$y(1,4,5)=100$

$z_s=z_xx_s+z_yy_s=(4x^3+2xy)(1)+x^2(tu^2)$
$z_s(1,4,5)=1,024,000$

$z_t=z_xx_t+z_yy_t=(4x^3+2xy)(2)+x^2(su^2)$
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3 years ago

The formula for the hypotenuse of a right triangle with legs of length a and b is shown.

fomenos

Answer: $b=\sqrt{c^{2}-a^{2}}$

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve the exercise you must solve for b from the formula for the hypotenuse, as you can see below:

- Square both sides of the equation as following:

$c^{2}=(\sqrt{a^{2}+b^{2}})^{2}$

- Now you must subtract a² from each side of the equation, then you obtain:

$c^2-a^{2}=a^{2}-a^{2}+b^{2}$

$c^2-a^{2}=b^{2}$

- Apply square root to both sides:

$\sqrt{b^{2}}=\sqrt{c^{2}-a^{2}}$

Then:

$b=\sqrt{c^{2}-a^{2}}$

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Please help!!!!!!!<br> Anyone..

dem82 [27]

Answer:

option B... 4

is right option

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3 years ago

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The probability that it will be at least 70°on Tuesday is 0.65. If it is at least 70°, there is a 0.8 chance that Mrs. Collins w

Zielflug [23.3K]

P(> or =70) =0.65
P(Collins inside) =0.80
P(not 70) = 1-P(70) =>0.35
P(Collins inside) = 0.1
Then P(70 AND Collin inside) .65 x .8 =0.52
P( not 70 AND Collin Outside = 0.35 x 0.1=0.035
TOTAL Possibility [(70 AND Inside) OR (not 70 AND Outside):
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3 years ago

jenny has 68 1/2 pages of her left to read. How many pages will she have left after she reads 26 1/6 pages?

jekas [21]

Answer:

42 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

We subtract 26 1/6 from 68 1/2. We do this by finding the LCM of 6 and 2. That is 6. We multiply 1/2 by 3/3 to get 3/6. Now, we subtract. 68 - 26 is 42, and 3/6 - 1/6 is 2/6. Our answer is 42 2/6. That can be simplified to 42 1/3.

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3 years ago