-- The smallest perimeter you can make with a certain area
is a circle.
-- The NEXT smallest perimeter with the same area is a square.
With 1-ft by 1-ft square bricks, the shortest perimeter she could
make would be by using her bricks to make it as square as possible.
Without cutting bricks into pieces, the best she could do would be
(13 bricks) x (3 bricks) .
= (13-ft) x (3-ft)
Perimeter = (2 x length) + (2 x width)
= (2 x 13-ft) + (2 x 3-ft)
= (26-ft) + (6-ft) = 32 feet <== shortest perimeter.
-- Then, the more UNSQUARE you make it, the more perimeter
it takes to enclose the same area. That means Mary has to make
a rectangle as long and skinny as she can.
The longest perimeter she can make (without cutting bricks into
pieces) is (39 bricks) x (1 brick) .
= (39-ft) x (1-ft) .
Perimeter = (2 x length) + (2 x width)
= (2 x 39-ft) + (2 x 1-ft)
= (78-ft) + (2-ft) = 80 feet .
What she'll have then is a brick path, 39 feet long and 1 foot wide,
and when you walk on it, you'll need to try hard to avoid falling off
because it's only 1 foot wide.
1. Y= 5/4x -1.4
2.Y=-2/4x -7
Formula is Y=MX+B
To solve these equations you have to make the Y separate so add or subtract the x value depending on the charge remember what you do to one side you do to the other after you divide everything by the number in the Y value and for the x you put the y value on-top and make it a fraction
Answer:
1.0638
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the question:
If a mechanic is applying 12 Newton centimeters of torque on a bolt how many pound inches would this be?
Torque = 12 Newton centimeter
Torque which is the turning effect on an object :
1 Newton = 0.225 pound force
1 centimeter = 0.394 inch
Hence ;
1 Newton centimeter = (1 × 0.225 × 0.394) = 0.08865 pound inch
12 Newton centimeter is hence, equals :
(12 × 0.225 × 0.394) pound inch
= 1.0638 pound inch
Answer:
75%
Step-by-step explanation:
3/12 =1/4
so 1/4 of 100% = 75%
Answer:
sin^2(θ)+cos^2(θ)=1
Step-by-step explanation:
We know that the statement above is true because of the Pythagorean identity theorem, which states the aforementioned equation. If you solve the equation for 1 you get the same equation.
To do this first multiply both sides by cos(θ), this gives you (cos^2θ)/1+sinθ = 1-sinθ
Then, multiply both sides by sinθ. This equals cos^θ=1-sin^2θ.
Finally, add sin^2θ to both sides. This equals the final answer of cos^2θ+sin^2θ=1. Which is true.
