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goblinko [34]
2 years ago
12

Pandora invested in the Box Mutual Fund by purchasing 1,000 shares on November 9, Year 1. On the first day of every month, the B

ox Fund pays a dividend that Pandora elects to have reinvested into the Box Fund. On average, Pandora received five additional shares per month. On December 15, Year 2, Pandora sold off her entire interest in the Box Fund (1,065 total shares). How many of the Box Fund shares sold by Pandora will qualify for the long-term holding period
Business
1 answer:
mario62 [17]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Pandora

Box Fund shares qualifying for the long-term holding period:

Total shares qualifying = 1,010

This is made up of:

Initial shares bought on Nov. 9 = 1,000

Reinvested shares on Dec. 1              5

Reinvested shares on Jan. 1               5

The remaining 55 (1,065 - 1,010) shares qualify for short-term holding periods as they lasted less than one year.

Explanation:

A long-term holding period is one year or more with no expiration. This implies that investment, including dividends paid into the account, that has a holding of less than one year will be a short-term hold.

The holding period of an investment is used to determine the taxing of capital gains or losses.

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At April 30, Pina Colada Corp. has the following bank information: Cash balance per bank $7600 Outstanding checks $460 Deposits
faust18 [17]

Pina adjusted cash balance on April 30 is $ 6,685

Solution:

Given,

As of April 30, Pina Colada Corp. has the following bank information:

Cash balance per bank               $7600

Outstanding checks                     $460

Deposits in transit                         $900

Credit memo for interest              $15

Bank service charge                     $30

Now  To find Pina adjusted cash balance on April 30 :

Adjusted Cash Balance Formula is : Cash balance + Notes receivable - Check Printing - NSF Check

Adjusted Cash Balance =  $7600+  $15  - $30 - $900

Adjusted Cash Balance = $ 6,685

Pina adjusted cash balance on April 30 is $ 6,685

8 0
3 years ago
"In the summer 2012 the lobster catch in Maine was especially large, but instead of celebrating the fisherman were suffering fro
34kurt

Answer:

Inelastic

Explanation:

The inelastic demand means the demand of the product does not vary when there is much change in the price. Let us assume that if the price is increased by 20% so the demand decreased only by 1% so here we can said there is inelastic demand

Also due to increased in the supply, the demand does not increased that much. So if the price is decreased so the demand does not respond due to which the total revenue comes down

So as per the given situation, having the large quantity caught the revenue is decreased so here the demand should be considered inelastic

4 0
3 years ago
When a country's exports are worth more than its imports, is has a:
liq [111]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
The market for electric cars is growing substantially. By contrast, after recent scandals involving high pollution levels, Diese
aleksklad [387]

Answer:

decline.

Explanation:

The decline stage of the product's life cycle is marked by declining sales and product profitability. Generally, in this phase, the product begins to be replaced by new technologies, becomes outdated and goes into disuse.

It is important for companies to be aware that when entering this phase, the product needs redesign planning, so that improvements are implemented that make it updated to be relaunched in the market and then start another life cycle.

8 0
3 years ago
Other things held constant, an increase in financial leverage will decrease a for-profit business’s market risk as measured by i
vaieri [72.5K]

Answer:

False because if the financial leverage is growing then the Financial risk will start growing and this increase in the financial risk will increase the beta. Furthermore this increase in financial leverage is also responsible for the increase in the Bankruptcy Risk.

Remember the beta factor is directly proportional to market risk (Systematic Risk) this means if the market risk is increasing then the beta will also increase and if the market risk is decreasing then the beta is decreasing. This is evident from the fact that people require more returns from their investments in Asia than USA. The reason is that the Market risk in Asian countries is more than United states of America.

8 0
3 years ago
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