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Ray Of Light [21]
3 years ago
9

Adam Smith's ‘invisible hand' refers to: how households and firms, acting in their own self-interest, manage to make everyone be

tter off. the control that large firms have over the economy. how governments allocate economic resources. how central planners made economic decisions.
Business
1 answer:
Igoryamba3 years ago
6 0

Answer: how households and firms, acting in their own self-interest, manage to make everyone better off

Explanation:

Adam Smith's ‘invisible hand could be described as a specific market pattern that is of advantage to both the demand and supply, where both party of the demand and those supplying reach an balance, where they both gain from each other, irrespective of how it minimal. An example is the decision of an individual purchasing an item and buying other item from same company which compliments the earlier item bought.

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Schedule of Cash Collections of Accounts Receivable OfficeMart Inc. has "cash and carry" customers and credit customers. OfficeM
Step2247 [10]

Answer:

Total cash receipts in October = $137,300

Total cash receipts in November = $120,825

Total cash receipts in December = $164,925

Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

Total cash receipts in October = Cash sales in October + September sales collection in October + October sales collection in October

= $108,000 × 30% + $86,000 + $108,000 ×70% × 25%

= $137,300

Total cash receipt in November = Cash sales in November + October sales collection in November + November sales collection in November  

= $135,000 × 30% + $108,000 × 70% × 75% + $135,000 × 70% × 25%

= $120,825

Total cash receipt in December = Cash sales in December + November sales collected in December + December sales collected in December

= $198,000×30% + $135,000 × 70% × 75% + $198,000 × 70% × 25%

= $164,925

5 0
4 years ago
A company has got $500 in cash and cash equivalents, $300 in inventory and $200 in account receivables. The firm has long term a
ElenaW [278]

Answer:

The computation is shown below:

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Current ratio = current assets ÷ current liabilities

where,

Current assets = cash + inventory + account receivables

= $500 + $300 + $200

= $1000

Current liabilities is

= $200 + $400

= $600

So, the current ratio is

= $1,000 ÷ 600

= 1.67 times

Debt Ratio is

= Total Liabilities ÷ Total Assets

= $600 ÷ $1,500

= 40%  

TIE is Time Interest Earned ratio

= EBIT ÷  Interest Expense

= $5,000 ÷ $2,000

= 2.5

Profit margin is

= Net Income ÷ Total Sales

= $800 ÷$10,000

= 8%

And,

Total asset turnover  is

= Sales ÷ Total Assets

= $10,000 ÷ $1,500

= 6.67

7 0
3 years ago
Indicate which of the following statements is true. a. Public transportation may be covered by an employer-provided spending acc
lukranit [14]

Answer:

B.Dependent care plans can only be used to cover the costs of caring for a dependent child

Explanation:

Dependent Care  with the high cost of child care these days a  Dependent Care Account makes it easy to save on taxes.  

5 0
3 years ago
Roadway Paving Company contracts to buy some paving equipment from Stonework Earthmovers, Inc. Before either party performs, Sto
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer: demand assurances of performance from stonework

                                         

Explanation: In simple words, assurance of performance refers to the written guarantee from the service provider that the service will be preformed as per the fixed guidelines.

These assurances is very common in contracts  which requires specific performance or performance from a specific person or an entity.

These contracts can be used in the court of law in case any conflict between the related party happens in future, thus it provides satisfaction to the paying party to some extent.

6 0
4 years ago
Which theory would most likely explain why a commercial bank, which usually focuses on short-term securities, would switch to lo
den301095 [7]

Answer:

preferred habitat

Explanation:

According to the preferred habitat theory, if the expected returns from investment of a particular investment maturity is large enough, investors would shift from their preferred maturities.

In this question, there is a shift from the preferred maturity (short-term securities) to a long-term securities when interest rate changes

The pure expectations theory assumes that bonds of any maturity are perfect substitutes for each other. For example, if an investor buys a 10 year bond and holds it for 1 year, the return is the same as buying a 1 year bond. The theory also assumes that risk premium does not exist and a security only earns its risk free rate

Liquidity premium theory states that risk premium increases with the maturity of a bond. The theory predicts that the yield curve is upward sloping due to liquidity premium

According to the segmented market theory, each bond maturity segment can be thought of as a segment market in which yield are a function of the demand and supply for funds in that maturity.

5 0
3 years ago
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