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fiasKO [112]
3 years ago
10

Under the weighted-average method, the cost of units transferred out of a department is computed as follows for a cost category:

Business
1 answer:
Roman55 [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

B. Units transferred to the next department × Cost per equivalent unit

Explanation:

Cost per equivalent unit refers to the cost of each completed unit possible.

As there is not only the units which are complete, but newly introduced and those in work in progress, and therefore, the cost of each equivalent unit is calculated so that it computes the cost for each unit.

Accordingly, all the units which are completed and transferred to another department are complete and the equivalent cost of completion of each unit shall be allocated to those units.

Therefore, correct option is:

Option B.

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Early personal computer users remember the cumbersome, user-unfriendly "DOS" system. When Apple introduced System 1 and Microsof
Aleksandr [31]

Early personal computer users remember the cumbersome, user-unfriendly "DOS" system. When Apple introduced System 1 and Microsoft introduced Windows, both of which were much easier to use, these new products diffused rapidly because of their relative advantage .

Option A

<u>Explanation: </u>

A product's dominance and market appeal over similar items. A competitive advantage is usually accomplished by giving better value to customers through either reducing prices or delivering added quality and service that justify higher costs.

That idea is based on consumer brand and product perceptions and does not necessarily reflect the actual characteristics of this product or service. The definition helps companies to consider that customers would choose to use this product or whether a rival would rather remain faithful to the already existing product.

8 0
3 years ago
Peng Company is considering an investment expected to generate an average net income after taxes of $2,600 for three years. The
daser333 [38]

Answer:

NPV = $-42,124.72

Explanation:

The new present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.

NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator:

Cash flow in year 0 =  $-54,000

Cash flow each year in year 1 and 2 = $2,600

Cash flow in year 3 = $2,600 +  $7,200 = $9,800

I = 10%

NPV = $-42,124.72

To find the NPV using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

3. Press compute

I hope my answer helps you

3 0
3 years ago
Check her computer for errors on the drive. Which tool can help her?
Troyanec [42]
Depends on what you are trying to fix

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
When developing marketing plans, what should a firm consider about their competition?.
nasty-shy [4]

When a company develops marketing plans, it must consider the weaknesses and reactions of competitors, so that it can identify the action necessary to maintain the company's competitive advantage.

<h3 /><h3>Marketing Plans</h3>

Corresponds to a document that details all the course of action of a company to achieve its marketing objectives, which are related to generating value for its products and services and positioning for the organization.

Therefore, the analysis of the external environment, such as the economy and competitors must be considered, so that the company can identify strategies to carry out the best decision making and maintain the flow of its activities as planned.

Find out more information about marketing plan here:

brainly.com/question/9027729

6 0
2 years ago
Mary's 25th birthday is today, and she hopes to retire on her 65th birthday. She has determined that she will need to have $4,00
inessss [21]

Answer:

Annuity will be $33112.644  

Explanation:

We have given future value ( FV ) = $4000000

Rate of interest r = 5% = 0.05

Number of periods n = 40

We know that future value is given by Futurte\ value(FV)=\frac{A}{r}[(1+r)^n-1]

Here A is annuity

So 4000000=\frac{A}{0.05}[(1+0.05)^{40}-1]

200000=A[(1+0.05)^{40}-1]

200000=A\times 6.0399

A=$33112.644

So annuity will be $33112.644

4 0
3 years ago
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