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mihalych1998 [28]
3 years ago
6

Vance has a vested account balance in his employer-sponsored qualified profit sharing plan of $40,000. He has two years of servi

ce with his employer and the plan follows the least generous graduated vesting schedule permitted for a profit sharing plan under PPA 2006. If Vance has an outstanding loan balance within the prior 12 months of $15,000, what is the maximum loan Vance could take from this qualified plan, assuming the plan permitted loans?
(a) $5,000.
(b) $20,000.
(c) $40,000.
(d) $50,000.
Business
1 answer:
balu736 [363]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

option (a) $5,000

Explanation:

For a vested account holder, the maximum loan an individual can take is the lesser of $50,000 or 50% of their balance in the vested account.

Here,

The maximum loan = 50% of $40,000

= $20,000  

also,

Vance has an outstanding loan balance = $15,000 within 12 months

Therefore,

The maximum loan available = maximum loan - Outstanding within 12 months

= $20,000 - $15,000

= $5,000

Hence,

The correct answer is option (a) $5,000

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It is a collection of all accounts with their activity and balances that exist in a business. It is a collection of all accounts
uysha [10]

It is known as the general ledger.

<u>Explanation:</u>

General ledger is a collection of all accounts with their activity and balances that exist in a business.  It is a book of original entry that includes a chronological record of all transactions that have occurred within a business organisation or an entity.

The general ledger has two accounts which are the debit and the credit occurring on the right and the left side of the book. The balance of the general ledger is used to verify that the debit side is equal to the credit side of the book.

3 0
3 years ago
Golddex Corporation has decided to sell some old equipment to make room for a new project. The salvage value of the equipment is
never [62]

Answer:

The correct answer is $263,200.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Salvage value =$220,000

Working capital = $60,000

Book value = $140,000

Tax rate = 21%

So, Gain on disposal = Salvage value - Book value

= $220,000 - $140,000 = $80,000

Now, Tax paid on gain on disposal value = Gain on disposal × tax rate

= $80,000 × 21% = $16,800

So, Salvage value after tax = Salvage value - Tax paid on gain on disposal value

= $220,000 - $16,800

= $203,200

So, we can calculate the terminal cash flow by using following formula:

Terminal cash flow = Salvage value after tax + Working value

= $203,200 + $60,000

= $263,200

7 0
3 years ago
Who is a good house builder in a bloxburg I need a house :(​
puteri [66]

I can probably do it for u

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Compute conversion costs given the following data: direct materials, $361,300; direct labor, $195,300; factory overhead, $216,70
Radda [10]

Answer:

a. $412,000

Explanation:

Conversion cost is the combination of direct labor and manufacturing overhead which directly or indirectly are necessary to produce a product other than the direct raw materials.

We know,

<em>Conversion costs = Direct Labor + Manufacturing Overhead</em>

Here,

Manufacturing overhead = Indirect material + Indirect Labor + Indirect overhead (including variable and fixed overhead)

Given,

Direct labor = $195,300

Manufacturing overhead = Factory overhead = $216,700

Selling expenses will not be included because it is not a direct or indirect overhead expense.

Therefore,

<em>Conversion costs = </em>$195,300 + $216,700

<em>Conversion costs = </em>$412,000

8 0
3 years ago
The December 31, 2015, balance sheet of Schism, Inc., showed long-term debt of $1,460,000, $152,000 in the common stock account,
elixir [45]

Answer:

Follows are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

Formula:

\text{Asset cash flow = creditors cash flow + equity cash flow}\\\\ \text{creditors cash flow = payment of interest-net new loans}\\\\ \text{Cash flow to lenders = interest charged}-( LTD_{end}-LTD_{beg}) \\

\text{Cash flow} =100000 -(1700000- 1460000) = - \$ 140,000 \\

\text{Shareholder cash flow = paid dividends-net new shares} \\\\\text{Cash flow = interest paid - (Common} + APIS_{end})- \text{(Common +} APIS_{beg}))\\\\

\text{Cash flow to the inventory holders}=  157000 -(162000 +3070000))-(152000+2770000) = - \$ 5997000

\text{Asset cash flow = - \$ 6,137,000}

6 0
4 years ago
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