Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
89
535
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2
32323
Answer:
the answer to this question is the third bullet
Answer:
Median is the middle line of the box, Lower quartile is the number of the lower end of the box, Upper quartile is the line at the larger end of the box, Maximum is the largest number in the box plot (end of right whisker), Minimum is the lowest number (end of left whisker).
Step-by-step explanation:
32.
Median: 88
Maximum (largest number): 102
Minimum (lowest number): 38
Interquartile range:
96 - 72 = 24
b.
25 % higher
75 % lower?
c.
You can see the range is more towards the right of the box meaning they have higher scores, and that the median or middle is a higher number so it means that most of the students understood and did well on the test.
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First quartile: 16
Second: 19
Third: 20
Range: 4
34. Since they are already in least to greatest order, all we have to do is graph it!
85 - 99 is 2
100 - 114 is 1
115 - 129 is 5
130 - 144 is 6
We begin with an unknown initial investment value, which we will call P. This value is what we are solving for.
The amount in the account on January 1st, 2015 before Carol withdraws $1000 is found by the compound interest formula A = P(1+r/n)^(nt) ; where A is the amount in the account after interest, r is the interest rate, t is time (in years), and n is the number of compounding periods per year.
In this problem, the interest compounds annually, so we can simplify the formula to A = P(1+r)^t. We can plug in our values for r and t. r is equal to .025, because that is equal to 2.5%. t is equal to one, so we can just write A = P(1.025).
We then must withdraw 1000 from this amount, and allow it to gain interest for one more year.
The principle in the account at the beginning of 2015 after the withdrawal is equal to 1.025P - 1000. We can plug this into the compound interest formula again, as well as the amount in the account at the beginning of 2016.
23,517.6 = (1.025P - 1000)(1 + .025)^1
23,517.6 = (1.025P - 1000)(1.025)
Divide both sides by 1.025
22,944 = (1.025P - 1000)
Add 1000 to both sides
23,944 = 1.025P
Divide both by 1.025 for the answer
$22,384.39 = P. We now have the value of the initial investment.
Answer:it will take 5 months for the cumulative costs of the plans to be equal and the total cos is $200
Step-by-step explanation:
Let x represent the number of months that for which the cumulative costs of the plans will be equal.
Let y represent the total cost of using plan A for x months.
Let z represent the total cost of using plan B for x months.
He can either pay a $150 joining fee and a $10 monthly fee. This means that the total cost of using plan A would be
y = 150 + 10x
For plan B, he can pay a $50 joining fee and a $30 monthly fee. This means that the total cost of using plan B would be
y = 50 + 30x
To determine the number of hours for which the cumulative costs of the plans will be equal, we would equate y to z. It becomes
150 + 10x = 50 + 30x
30x - 10x = 150 - 50
20x = 100
x = 100/20 = 5 months
The total cost would be
150 + 10 × 5 = 150 + 50 = $200
