Her time was 0.02 seconds short of being equal to the 2nd fastest time. In conclusion, no, she was slower.
Answer:
9.941*10^-6
Step-by-step explanation:
Probability of at most 1 means not more than 1 defective= probability of 1 or probability of 0
Probability of 1 = 50C1(0.25)(0.75)^49
Probability= 50(0.25)*7.55*10^-7
Probability= 9.375*10^-6
Probability of 0
= 50C0(0.25)^0(0.75)^50
= 1(1)(0.566*10^-6)
= 0.566*10^-6
Total probability
= 9.375*10^-6+ 0.566*10^-6
= 9.941*10^-6
Answer:
-2 a b + 2 b + 6 a^2 + 9
Step-by-step explanation:
Simplify the following:
2 a^2 + a b + 2 b + 4 a^2 - 3 a b + 9
Grouping like terms, 2 a^2 + a b + 2 b + 4 a^2 - 3 a b + 9 = (a b - 3 a b) + 2 b + (2 a^2 + 4 a^2) + 9:
(a b - 3 a b) + 2 b + (2 a^2 + 4 a^2) + 9
a b + a b (-3) = -2 a b:
-2 a b + 2 b + (2 a^2 + 4 a^2) + 9
2 a^2 + 4 a^2 = 6 a^2:
Answer: -2 a b + 2 b + 6 a^2 + 9
Answer:
2.052
Step-by-step explanation:
I hope it helped lot sj
Answer : A it is decreased by $70,000
Federal reserve sells $70,000 in treasury bonds to a bank.
Removing cash decreases the money supply . Money supply decreases when exchanging for bonds. That is the immediate effect on money supply.
Federal reserve sells $70,000 . so money supply is decreased by $70,000
