Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's set up a system of equations. (1 equation for yesterday and 1 for today).
- Let h = haircut and c= color
(Yesterday: 2 haircuts and 1 color for $194).
(Today: 2 haircuts and 4 colors for $494).
Notice that both equations have a 2h. If we subtract the two equations, the 2h will cancel and leave us with one variable, c.
Since we are solving for c, we must isolate the variable. It is being multiplied by -3. The inverse of multiplication is division. Divide both sides by -3.
Now we have to solve for h. Plug 100 in for c in the first equation.
100 is being added, so we must subtract 100 from both sides.
h is being multiplied by 2, so we divide both sides by 2.
A haircut costs $47 and a color costs $100.
Do you mean no repeating numbers within the two sets? Because if so, I don't think it's possible.
I started by trying to figure out what the numbers in the tenths place should be. I used subtraction: 71 - ___ = ____. If you try it out, you can't subtract anything with a 6, 7, 8, or 9 in the tenths place because it will leave you with 11 (a repeating digit number), 10 (has a 0), or less (1-digit numbers). Also, a 3 cannot go into the tenths place because when you do 71 - 3_ , your answer will always begin with a 3 (problem because the 3 repeats), or it will contain a 0.
Therefore, the numbers left for the tenths place are: 1, 2, 4, and 5. 1 and 5 pair up, leaving 4 and 2.
71 - 5_ = 1_ and 71 - 4_ = 2_.
Then, I tried to figure out what numbers go in the ones place. That lead me to realize they act in pairs. The pairs possible in the ones place are 2 and 9, 3 and 8, 4 and 7, 5 and 6. These numbers always go together to result with the final "1" in the "71". Using this information, I looked at the numbers I already used: 1, 2, 4, and 5. Now, looking at the pairs, I eliminated the pairs containing a number already used. This leaves me with only one pair: 3 and 8. Obviously, you need two more pairs to solve the problem, which leads me to my point of saying: This problem is impossible to solve.
I really hope someone can prove me wrong! But this is the solution I have reached for now. :)
Yes, the formula for the volume of a prism is the area of the base multiplied by the height of the prism. To find the area of the base since it's a triangle is 1/2 base x height. Which would be 1/2(4)(12)=24. Then you would take that number and multiply it by the height of the prism. Which would be (24)(6)=144 cubic units.
Answer:
V = 10 in^3
Step-by-step explanation:
The volume of a sphere is given by
V = 4/3 pi r^3
We have the diameter
r = d/2 = 2.7/2 =1.35
V = 4/3 ( 3.14) (1.35)^3
V =10.30077
Rounding to the nearest whole number
V = 10 in^3
