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Snezhnost [94]
4 years ago
11

Suppose 4 mg of a drug is injected into a person's bloodstream. As the drug is metabolized, the quantity diminishes at the conti

nuous rate of 3% per hour?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Brut [27]4 years ago
3 0
Let Q(t) = the mass (mg) remaining after t hours.
We are told that Q diminishes by 3% every hour.

When t = 0, Q = 4 mg
When t = 1,  Q = 4*0.97 mg
When t = 2, Q = 4*(0.97)² mg

By induction,
Q(t) = 4 (0.97)^{t} \, mg

Q'(t) = 0.97Q
Therefore the rate of decrease is 3% per hour.

The person receives an additional dosage when Q falls to 0.50 mg. This happens when
4(0.97)^{t}=0.5 \\0.97^{t} = 0.125 \\ t \,ln(0.97) = ln(0.125) \\ t =  \frac{ln(0.125)}{ln(0.97)} =68.27 \, hrs

After the second injection, the mass is now 4.5 mg. Therefore
Q(t)=4.5(0.97)^{t}

When the mass again reaches 0.50 mg, then
4.5(0.97)^{t}=0.5 \\ 0.97^{t}=0.1111 \\ t \, ln(0.97) = ln(0.1111) \\ t = 72.14 \, hrs

Answers: 
(a) Q(t) = 4(0.97)^{t}
(b) 3% per hour
(c) 68.3 hours
(d) 72.1 hours

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Suppose that f: R --> R is a continuous function such that f(x +y) = f(x)+ f(y) for all x, yER Prove that there exists KeR su
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<h2>Answer with explanation:</h2>

It is given that:

f: R → R is a continuous function such that:

f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)------(1)  ∀  x,y ∈ R

Now, let us assume f(1)=k

Also,

  • f(0)=0

(  Since,

f(0)=f(0+0)

i.e.

f(0)=f(0)+f(0)

By using property (1)

Also,

f(0)=2f(0)

i.e.

2f(0)-f(0)=0

i.e.

f(0)=0  )

Also,

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i.e.

f(2)=f(1)+f(1)         ( By using property (1) )

i.e.

f(2)=2f(1)

i.e.

f(2)=2k

  • Similarly for any m ∈ N

f(m)=f(1+1+1+...+1)

i.e.

f(m)=f(1)+f(1)+f(1)+.......+f(1) (m times)

i.e.

f(m)=mf(1)

i.e.

f(m)=mk

Now,

f(1)=f(\dfrac{1}{n}+\dfrac{1}{n}+.......+\dfrac{1}{n})=f(\dfrac{1}{n})+f(\dfrac{1}{n})+....+f(\dfrac{1}{n})\\\\\\i.e.\\\\\\f(\dfrac{1}{n}+\dfrac{1}{n}+.......+\dfrac{1}{n})=nf(\dfrac{1}{n})=f(1)=k\\\\\\i.e.\\\\\\f(\dfrac{1}{n})=k\cdot \dfrac{1}{n}

Also,

  • when x∈ Q

i.e.  x=\dfrac{p}{q}

Then,

f(\dfrac{p}{q})=f(\dfrac{1}{q})+f(\dfrac{1}{q})+.....+f(\dfrac{1}{q})=pf(\dfrac{1}{q})\\\\i.e.\\\\f(\dfrac{p}{q})=p\dfrac{k}{q}\\\\i.e.\\\\f(\dfrac{p}{q})=k\dfrac{p}{q}\\\\i.e.\\\\f(x)=kx\ for\ all\ x\ belongs\ to\ Q

(

Now, as we know that:

Q is dense in R.

so Э x∈ Q' such that Э a seq belonging to Q such that:

\to x )

Now, we know that: Q'=R

This means that:

Э α ∈ R

such that Э sequence a_n such that:

a_n\ belongs\ to\ Q

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a_n\to \alpha

f(a_n)=ka_n

( since a_n belongs to Q )

Let f is continuous at x=α

This means that:

f(a_n)\to f(\alpha)\\\\i.e.\\\\k\cdot a_n\to f(\alpha)\\\\Also\\\\k\cdot a_n\to k\alpha

This means that:

f(\alpha)=k\alpha

                       This means that:

                    f(x)=kx for every x∈ R

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