Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:
1/4, 1/6 and 1/8(random)
Step-by-step explanation:
Kidding!
Take LCM and after that take random no. between 9/24 and -20/24. I took 6/24, 4/24 and 3/24, which I simplified
The appropriate formula here is l = a + (n-1)d, where l represents the last term.
Here the first term is -5 and the common difference is +4. Thus,
l = -5 + (n-1)(4) (answer)
Check: we are given the arith sequence -5, -1, 3, 7. Does our formula correctly predict the 1st term? l = -5 + (1-1)(4) = > -5. Yes.
Does it correctly predict the 3rd term? l = -5 +(3-1)(4) => -5+2(4) = 3. Yes
The area of the bases must be the same. I just got it correct on the quiz.
Answer:
VXW
Step-by-step explanation: Since the first one is the same model as the 2nd but with different letter and the order for the first one would be the same as the 2nd model.