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Digiron [165]
3 years ago
10

Why is North Korea is considered to be developing country. Why is the country isolated from other countries?

History
2 answers:
kompoz [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

North Korea is considered a developing country due to the fact that it is one of the poorest and less developed countries in the world. North korea is isolated from the rest of the world. Origionally north Korea became issolated from the rest of the world after the fall of the Soviet union. Over time it has only grew more and more distant from the worlds growing modernization

Explanation:

Tatiana [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Child labor is a serious challenge throughout Central and East Asia, especially in agricultural communities where cash crops are grown. Using complete sentences, identify the two largest cash crops grown in Central Asia. Why do you think that most of the world is against the practice of child labor? Do you think that child labor could hurt a country’s future development?

 

Explanation:

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The Swedish Empire (Swedish: stormaktstiden, "the era of great power") refers to the Kingdom of Sweden's territorial control of much of the Baltic region during the 17th and early 18th centuries, a time when Sweden was one of the great European powers.[1] The beginning of the Empire is usually taken as the reign of Gustavus Adolphus, who ascended the throne in 1611, and the end as the loss of territories in 1721 following the Great Northern War. In Swedish history, the period is referred to as stormaktstiden, literally meaning "the Great Power era".[1]

After the death of Gustavus Adolphus in 1632, the empire was, over lengthy periods, controlled by part of the high nobility, most prominently the Oxenstierna family, acting as tutors for minor regents. The interests of the high nobility contrasted with the uniformity policy (i.e., the upholding of the traditional equality in status of the Swedish estates favoured by the kings and peasantry). In territories acquired during the periods of de facto noble rule, serfdom was not abolished, and there was also a trend to set up respective estates in Sweden proper. The Great Reduction of 1680 put an end to these efforts of the nobility and required them to return estates once gained from the crown to the king. Serfdom, however, remained in force in the dominions acquired in the Holy Roman Empire and in Swedish Estonia, where a consequent application of the uniformity policy was hindered by the treaties by which they were gained.

After the victories in the Thirty Years' War, the climax of the great power era was reached during the Second Northern War, when their primary adversary Denmark was neutralized by the Treaty of Roskilde in 1658. However, in the further course of this war as well as in the subsequent Scanian War, Sweden was able to maintain her empire only with support of her closest ally, France.[2] Charles XI of Sweden consolidated the empire and ensured a period of peace, before Russia, Saxony and Denmark started a concerted attack on his successor, Charles XII. After initial Swedish victories, Charles secured the empire for some time in the Peace of Travendal (1700) and the Treaty of Altranstädt (1706), before the Battle of Poltava (1709) finally brought the great power era of Sweden to an end.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Number 2, do you guys know a quizlet to this?
Andreyy89

Answer:

https://quizlet.com/238404764/chapter-15-reconstruction-1865-1877-flash-cards/

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These are just some I really liked. I hope you do well. Comment on this which one you found most useful. Thx

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What was a political cause of the French Revolution ?
solniwko [45]
They’re actually several..but one I would use is “they had an absolute monarchy, and most people were denied basic rights.”
3 0
3 years ago
The Portuguese dominated two separete trading triangles.
lara31 [8.8K]

Answer:

Portuguese dominated the trade in the Indian Ocean which forms the first triangle and then they dominated trade from South America to Europe which is the other triangle

Explanation: Portuguese dominated the trade in the Indian Ocean as they were the ones making laws about the trade and were responsible for the naval presence tot the separate parts from the horn of Africa to the Indian and south east Asian coasts dominating the spice trade.

Apart from this they dominated trade from South America to Europe which is the other triangle and it was very lucrative as they had been able to colonize the region well and held on to Brazil for long.

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<h3>Answer:</h3>

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