Answer: I am in highschool and im doing this stuff. If you find out the answer let me know please.
I think you need to pit in a graph or draw one yourself, eat mile lable that you ran 100 miles and keep going
Answer:
The solution is 
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question we are told that
The function is
, -1 < x < 1 a = 4
Here we are told find 
Let equate

So
![4 + x^2 + tan[\frac{\pi x }{2} ] = 4](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=4%20%2B%20%20x%5E2%20%20%2B%20tan%5B%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%20x%20%7D%7B2%7D%20%5D%20%3D%20%204)
![x^2 + tan[\frac{\pi x }{2} ] = 0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%5E2%20%20%2B%20tan%5B%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%20x%20%7D%7B2%7D%20%5D%20%20%3D%20%200)
For the equation above to be valid x must be equal to 0
Now when x = 0
![f(0) = 4+0^2 + tan [\frac{ \pi * 0}{2} ]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=f%280%29%20%3D%204%2B0%5E2%20%2B%20tan%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B%20%5Cpi%20%2A%200%7D%7B2%7D%20%5D)
=>
=> 
Differentiating f(x)

Now
since
We have

Now


First, you have to convert 75/8 into a mixed fraction which will be 9 3/8. 9 3/8+ 5 3/4 = 15 1/8. Finally, you do 19 1/2 - 15 1/8 which is 4 3/8
The answer is 4 3/8