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erastovalidia [21]
4 years ago
13

Verify that the SI unit of impulse is the same as the SI unit of momentum.

Physics
1 answer:
lys-0071 [83]4 years ago
4 0

Maybe this will help you out:

Momentum is calculate by the formula:

P = mv

Where:

P = momentum

m = mass      

v = velocity

The SI unit:

mass = kg\\ velocity = \dfrac{m}{s}

So the unit of momentum would be:

kg.\dfrac{m}{s}

Impulse is defined as the change in momentum or how much force changes momentum. It can be calculate with the formula:

I = FΔt

where:

I = impulse

F = Force

Δt = change in time

The SI unit:

F = Newtons (N) or kg.\dfrac{m}{s^{2} }

t = Seconds (s)

So the unit of impulse would be derived this way:

I = FΔt

I = kg.\dfrac{m}{s^{2} } x s

or

\dfrac{kg.m.s}{s^{2}} = \dfrac{kg.m.s}{s.s}

You can then cancel out one s each from the numerator and denominator and you'll be left with:

kg.\dfrac{m}{s}

So then:

Momentum:                             Impulse

kg.\dfrac{m}{s}                                       kg.\dfrac{m}{s}

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Two thin concentric spherical shells of radii r1 and r2 (r1 < r2) contain uniform surface charge densities V1 and V2, respect
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Answer:

Answer is explained in the explanation section below.

Explanation:

Solution:

We know that the Electric field inside the thin hollow shell is zero, if there is no charge inside it.

So,

a)  0 < r < r1 :

We know that the Electric field inside the thin hollow shell is zero, if there is no charge inside it.

Hence, E = 0 for r < r1

b)  r1 < r < r2:

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Let, us consider the Gaussian Surface,

E x 4 \pi r^{2}  = \frac{Q1}{E_{0} }

So,

Rearranging the above equation to get Electric field, we will get:

E = \frac{Q1}{E_{0} . 4 \pi. r^{2}   }

Multiply and divide by r1^{2}

E = \frac{Q1}{E_{0} . 4 \pi. r^{2}   } x \frac{r1^{2} }{r1^{2} }

Rearranging the above equation, we will get Electric Field for r1 < r < r2:

E= (σ1 x r1^{2}) /(E_{0} x r^{2})

c) r > r2 :

Electric Field = ?

E x 4 \pi r^{2}  = \frac{Q1 + Q2}{E_{0} }

Rearranging the above equation for E:

E = \frac{Q1+Q2}{E_{0} . 4 \pi. r^{2}   }

E = \frac{Q1}{E_{0} . 4 \pi. r^{2}   } + \frac{Q2}{E_{0} . 4 \pi. r^{2}   }

As we know from above, that:

\frac{Q1}{E_{0} . 4 \pi. r^{2}   } =  (σ1 x r1^{2}) /(E_{0} x r^{2})

Then, Similarly,

\frac{Q2}{E_{0} . 4 \pi. r^{2}   } = (σ2 x r2^{2}) /(E_{0} x r^{2})

So,

E = \frac{Q1}{E_{0} . 4 \pi. r^{2}   } + \frac{Q2}{E_{0} . 4 \pi. r^{2}   }

Replacing the above equations to get E:

E = (σ1 x r1^{2}) /(E_{0} x r^{2}) + (σ2 x r2^{2}) /(E_{0} x r^{2})

Now, for

d) Under what conditions,  E = 0, for r > r2?

For r > r2, E =0 if

σ1 x r1^{2} = - σ2 x r2^{2}

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