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frozen [14]
3 years ago
8

A parent acquires its subsidiary on January 1, 2019, at a cost that exceeds the subsidiary's book value by $10,000. The subsidia

ry's assets and liabilities are reported at amounts approximating book value, and there are no previously unreported assets or liabilities. Goodwill from the acquisition is impaired by $300 in 2019 and $100 in 2020. The subsidiary reports net income of $4,500 in 2019 and $3,200 in 2020. The subsidiary has no other comprehensive income and declares no dividends during 2019 or 2020.
On the consolidation working paper at December 31, 2020, eliminating entry (A) includes a debit to the investment in subsidiary account in the amount of:
A. $7,700
B. $4,500
C. $4,200
D. $7,300
Business
2 answers:
klasskru [66]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Correct answer is D $7300

Explanation:

Net income in 2019

$4,500

Net income in 2020

$3,200

Minus: Goodwill from the acquisition impaired in 2019

-$300

Minus: Goodwill from the acquisition impaired in 2020

-$100

Investment in subsidiary account

$7,300

Net income of the subsidiary company will be increasing the parent's asset value on the balance sheet, and any subsidiary's loss or goodwill impairment decreases it.

Tpy6a [65]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$7300 ( D )

Explanation:

Given the following data

subsidiary net income are

= $4500 for 2019

= $3200 for 2020

Goodwill form acquisitions are

= $300 for 2019

= $100 for 2020

on the consolidation working paper at the end of 2020 when entry A is eliminated

The subsidiary account will be recorded with the amount of

= subsidiary net incomes - goodwill from acquisitions

= ( $4500 - $300 ) + ( $3200 - $100 )

= $4200 + $3100

= $7300

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"The following per unit cost information is available: direct materials $10, direct labor $4, variable manufacturing overhead $3
natta225 [31]

Answer:

The target selling price =$45  

Explanation:

The target selling price is the sum of the total unit cost plus 25% of the the unit cost

The target selling price = Total per unit cost + (25% × total unit cost)

The total unit cost is the sum of all the costs involved making the product available to the consumer.

The sum of direct material cost , labour cost variable manufacturing, fixed manufacturing overhead, variable selling and administrative expenses and fixed selling and administrative expenses.

The target selling price would be determined using te steps below:

Step 1: Calculate the unit cost

Total unit cost = 10 + 4 + 3 + 10 + 1 + 8 = 36  

Total unit cost = $36

Step 2: Calculate the target selling price

Target selling price = Unit cost + (25%× unit cost)

The target selling price = 36 + (25% × 36) = $45  

The target selling price =$45  

8 0
3 years ago
At GoodSpeak Telecommunications, when managers have a job opening, they look first at the employees who are already in the compa
Zina [86]

Answer: Internal Recruiting

Explanation:

The managers at Goodspeak Telecommunications, are making use of internal recruiting to fill their job vacancies in the company.

Internal Recruiting is a method of hiring workers, done by first of all considering the internal employees of the company to fill the vacant job position.

6 0
3 years ago
g a machine with a cost of $148,000 and accumulated depreciation of $103,000 is sold for $59,000 cash. the amount that should be
krek1111 [17]

In a condition wherein a machine costing $148,000 and accumulates depreciation of $103,000 is sold for $59,000 cash, then the amount that should be reported as a source of cash under the cash flows from investing activities will be $59,000. Therefore, the option C holds true.

Cash flows from investing activities include the amount(s) spent by an organization over investing in different classes of assets with a view to pursue monetary returns. They include the amounts that are received or sent as cash at the time of purchase or sales of an asset of an organization.

Learn more about cash flows here:

brainly.com/question/15021405

#SPJ4

Complete question

g a machine with a cost of $148,000 and accumulated depreciation of $103,000 is sold for $59,000 cash. the amount that should be reported as a source of cash under cash flows from investing activities is:

a. Zero.

b. This is a financing activity.

c. $59,000.

d. $14,000.

e. This is an operating activity.

f. $45,000.

5 0
1 year ago
Laughlin, Inc., uses a standard costing system. The predetermined overhead rates are calculated using practical capacity. Practi
Murrr4er [49]

Answer:

(1) $5,300 F; $30,000

(2) $77,800 U; $22,500 U

Explanation:

1. Fixed Overhead Spending variance:

= Budgeted Fixed Overhead - Actual Fixed Overhead

= 300,000 -294,700

= $5,300 Favorable

Fixed Overhead Volume variance:

= (Standard Output -Actual Output ) × Fixed Overhead absorption rate per unit of output

= (1,000,000 - 900,000) × (300,000 ÷ 1,000,000)

= 30,000 Unfavorable

2. Actual Hours = 190,000

Actual variable Overhead = 800,000 -294,700

                                           = 505,300

Standard variable Overhead rate = (750,000 - 300,000) ÷ 200,000

                                                       = 2.25

Variable Overhead Spending Variance:

= (Actual hours × Standard variable overhead rate per hour) - Actual manufacturing overhead

= (190,000 × 2.25) - 505,300

= 77,800 unfavorable

Variable overhead Efficiency variance:

= (Standard Hour - Actual Hour) × Standard variable Overhead rate

= [(200,000 ÷ 1,000,000) × 900000 - 190,000] × 2.25

= $22,500 Unfavorable

3. The Journal entries are as follows:

WIP inventory A/C                               Dr.  $727,500

To Fixed manufacturing Overhead                            $300,000

To Variable manufacturing Overhead                       $427,500

(To record fixed and variable manufacturing overhead)

Workings:

Variable manufacturing Overhead = 190,000 × 2.25

                                                         = $427,500

Fixed manufacturing Overhead A/c    Dr. $5,300

WIP Inventory A/C                                 Dr. $72,500

To Variable manufacturing Overhead                         $77,800

(To record Closing out overhead variances)

3 0
3 years ago
Perpetuities are also called annuities with an extended or unlimited life. Based on your understanding of perpetuities, answer t
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.

Explanation:

The perpetuities can becalculate as follow

C/rate = Perpetuities

the reasoning behind this formula:

C * \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

If we calculate limit whe ntime is infite,

because at more time 1 + r gets closer and closer to 0

we get on the dividend

1 - 0

So we have C x 1/i = C/i

Next part would be why the first cash flow is more relevant than the subsequent cash flow:

\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

Here if time increases, then the divisor get closer to ∞ so we have

P ( a constant) /∞ = 0

So the first cashflow is more relevant than the more distant cash flow

8 0
3 years ago
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