Answer:
−π
----
4
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
The answer is 2.686, and i am writing these extra characters to pass the 20 character qualifications.
Do you need a unit rate? Or do you have an attatchment for me to solve the unit rate? If you need an example of a unit rate one could be:
27 gallons.
----------------
$3. Cost
27 divided by 3 is 9
9 gallons
-------------
Per dollar
Correct me if im wrong, if you multiply 11.35 by 10 you get $113.5. multiply by 4 and that equals to $454.
-hope this helps
Driving for 2 hours and 45 minutes at an average speed of 60 miles per hour.
2 hours and 45 minutes = 2 hours and 45 minutes 0r 2.75 hrs _________ 60minutes
D = rt = 60mph *2.75hr = 165mi
