Answer:
![15\pi\ cm^{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=15%5Cpi%5C%20cm%5E%7B2%7D)
Step-by-step explanation:
we know that
The lateral area of the cone is equal to
![LA=\pi rl](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=LA%3D%5Cpi%20rl)
where
r is the radius of the base
l is the slant height
we have
![r=3\ cm](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=r%3D3%5C%20cm)
Applying the Pythagoras Theorem find the slant height
![l^{2}=3^{2} +4^{2}\\ \\l^{2}=25\\ \\l=5\ cm](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=l%5E%7B2%7D%3D3%5E%7B2%7D%20%2B4%5E%7B2%7D%5C%5C%20%5C%5Cl%5E%7B2%7D%3D25%5C%5C%20%5C%5Cl%3D5%5C%20cm)
substitute in the formula
![LA=\pi (3)(5)=15\pi\ cm^{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=LA%3D%5Cpi%20%283%29%285%29%3D15%5Cpi%5C%20cm%5E%7B2%7D)
Equal angles are usually called ''alternate angles''.
No,because a multiplcative inverse is when your changing a division or multiplcation sign!
The top 15% (85th percentile) is the cutoff value
![x](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x)
such that
![\mathbb P(X\le x)=\mathbb P\left(\dfrac{X-250}{40}\le\dfrac{x-250}{40}\right)=\mathbb P(Z\le z)=0.85](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cmathbb%20P%28X%5Cle%20x%29%3D%5Cmathbb%20P%5Cleft%28%5Cdfrac%7BX-250%7D%7B40%7D%5Cle%5Cdfrac%7Bx-250%7D%7B40%7D%5Cright%29%3D%5Cmathbb%20P%28Z%5Cle%20z%29%3D0.85)
where
![z](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=z)
is the corresponding cutoff for the standardized normal distribution. We have
![z\approx1.0364](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=z%5Capprox1.0364)
, and so
IS THAT DIRECTED TOWARDS ME