Answer:
The correct response is Option b (1.60%).
Explanation:
According to the question,
Initial investment,
= $50,000
Perpetual annual cash flows,
= $800
Now,
The interest rate will be:
= 
On substituting the given values, we get
= 
= 
i.e.,
= 
Answer:
Inelastic: Demand for business goods tends to be me more inelastic than demand for consumer goods.
Explanation:
I already did this before. ur welcome
Answer:
7.3%; 12.17%; 0.6 times; 15.95%
Explanation:
Return on assets:
= Net Income ÷ Average total assets
= ($65,700 ÷ $900,000) × 100
=
7.3%
Profit Margin:
= Net Income ÷ Net Sales
= ($65,700 ÷ $540,000) × 100
= 12.17%
Asset Turnover:
= Net Sales ÷ Average Total Assets
= $540,000 ÷ $900,000
= 0.6 times
Return on Equity:
= Net Income before dividend ÷ Equity
= [($65,700 + $30,000) ÷ $600,000] × 100
= ($95,700 ÷ $600,000] × 100
= 15.95%
Answer: F
Explanation: The fed funds rate is the interest rate that depository institutions—banks, savings and loans, and credit unions—charge each other for overnight loans. The discount rate is the interest rate that Federal Reserve Banks charge when they make collateralized loans—usually overnight—to depository institutions.
Answer:
$4.67 per share
Explanation:
The calculation of the diluted earning per share is given below:
= (Total income - preference dividends) ÷ (outstanding shares + diluted shares)
where,
Total income is $50,000
Outstanding shares is 10,000
And, the diluted shares is computed by following calculations
Amount paid towards shares = Options issued × Exercise price per share
= 1,000 × $6
= $6,000
And,
Value of options = Amount paid towards shares ÷ Current market price
= $6,000 ÷ $20
= 300
Therefore,
Diluted shares is
= Options issued - value of options
= 1,000 - 300
= 700
So Diluted Earnings per share is
= ($50,000) ÷ (10,000 + 700)
= $4.67 per share
