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2 years ago

For the function F(x)=1/x,which of these could be a value of F(x) when x is close to zero

Mathematics

1 answer:

fomenos2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

C. -10,000

Step-by-step explanation:

As x approaches zero, f(x) approaches infinity or negative infinity.

Answer: C. -10,000

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2 years ago

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Graph the function on the coordinate plane.Type equation here.

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2 years ago

Any 10th grader solve it for 50 points

kkurt [141]

Answer:

$\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)\neq 0$ is proved for the sum of pth, qth and rth terms of an arithmetic progression are a, b,and c respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the sum of pth, qth and rth terms of an arithmetic progression are a, b and c respectively.

First term of given arithmetic progression is A

and common difference is D

ie., $a_{1}=A$ and common difference=D

The nth term can be written as

$a_{n}=A+(n-1)D$

pth term of given arithmetic progression is a

$a_{p}=A+(p-1)D=a$

qth term of given arithmetic progression is b

$a_{q}=A+(q-1)D=b$ and

rth term of given arithmetic progression is c

$a_{r}=A+(r-1)D=c$

We have to prove that

$\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)=0$

Now to prove LHS=RHS

Now take LHS

$\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)$

$=\frac{A+(p-1)D}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{A+(q-1)D}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{A+(r-1)D}{r}\times (p-q)$

$=\frac{A+pD-D}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{A+qD-D}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{A+rD-D}{r}\times (p-q)$

$=\frac{Aq+pqD-Dq-Ar-prD+rD}{p}+\frac{Ar+rqD-Dr-Ap-pqD+pD}{q}+\frac{Ap+prD-Dp-Aq-qrD+qD}{r}$

$=\frac{[Aq+pqD-Dq-Ar-prD+rD]\times qr+[Ar+rqD-Dr-Ap-pqD+pD]\times pr+[Ap+prD-Dp-Aq-qrD+qD]\times pq}{pqr}$

$=\frac{Arq^{2}+pq^{2} rD-Dq^{2} r-Aqr^{2}-pqr^{2} D+qr^{2} D+Apr^{2}+pr^{2} qD-pDr^{2} -Ap^{2}r-p^{2} rqD+p^{2} rD+Ap^{2} q+p^{2} qrD-Dp^{2} q-Aq^{2} p-q^{2} prD+q^{2}pD}{pqr}$

$=\frac{Arq^{2}-Dq^{2}r-Aqr^{2}+qr^{2}D+Apr^{2}-pDr^{2}-Ap^{2}r+p^{2}rD+Ap^{2}q-Dp^{2}q-Aq^{2}p+q^{2}pD}{pqr}$

$=\frac{Arq^{2}-Dq^{2}r-Aqr^{2}+qr^{2}D+Apr^{2} -pDr^{2}-Ap^{2}r+p^{2}rD+Ap^{2}q-Dp^{2}q-Aq^{2}p+q^{2}pD}{pqr}$

$\neq 0$

ie., $RHS\neq 0$

Therefore $LHS\neq RHS$

ie., $\frac{a}{p}\times (q-r)+\frac{b}{q}\times (r-p)+\frac{c}{r}\times (p-q)\neq 0$

Hence proved

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2 years ago

Find a third point on the line that passes through (4, 1) and (0, 3)

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2 years ago

If (6^2]^p = 6^10, what is the value of p? A.) 2 B.) 3 C.) 4 D.) 5

kvv77 [185]

If u raise a power to another power, then u multiply the powers. In this case, u can simplify to 6^2p =6^10

Now you have like bases, so you can set the powers equal to each other. So now, 2p=10. Now p=5

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2 years ago