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Gnesinka [82]
3 years ago
13

Triangle ABC is congruent to triangle XYZ. In ΔABC, AB = 12 cm and AC = 14 cm. In △XYZ, YZ = 10 cm and XZ = 14 cm. What is the p

erimeter of ΔABC? 36 cm 38 cm 40 cm 50 cm
Mathematics
1 answer:
daser333 [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: 36cm

Step-by-step explanation:

edge2020

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What's three fourths times twenty eight equal?
Hoochie [10]
Hi , 3/4 times 28 equals to 84/4
28 is equivalent to 28/1
we just multiply straight across
28 x 3 equals to 84
4 x 1 equals to 4
 
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5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Could the inverse of a non-function be a function? Explain or give an example.
Kitty [74]

Answer:

The inverse of a non-function mapping is not necessarily a function.

For example, the inverse of the non-function mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! is the same as itself (and thus isn't a function, either.)

Step-by-step explanation:

A mapping is a set of pairs of the form (a,\, b). The first entry of each pair is the value of the input. The second entry of the pair would be the value of the output.  

A mapping is a function if and only if for each possible input value x, at most one of the distinct pairs includes x\! as the value of first entry.

For example, the mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0) \rbrace is a function. However, the mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace isn't a function since more than one of the distinct pairs in this mapping include 1 as the value of the first entry.

The inverse of a mapping is obtained by interchanging the two entries of each of the pairs. For example, the inverse of the mapping \lbrace (a_{1},\, b_{1}),\, (a_{2},\, b_{2})\rbrace is the mapping \lbrace (b_{1},\, a_{1}),\, (b_{2},\, a_{2})\rbrace.

Consider mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!. This mapping isn't a function since the input value 0 is the first entry of more than one of the pairs.

Invert \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! as follows:

  • (0,\, 0) becomes (0,\, 0).
  • (0,\, 1) becomes (1,\, 0).
  • (1,\, 0) becomes (0,\, 1).
  • (1,\, 1) becomes (1,\, 1).

In other words, the inverse of the mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! would be \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!, which is the same as the original mapping. (Mappings are sets. There is no order between entries within a mapping.)

Thus, \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! is an example of a non-function mapping that is still not a function.

More generally, the inverse of non-trivial ellipses (a class of continuous non-function \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} mappings, including circles) are also non-function mappings.

3 0
2 years ago
What is the volume of a cone with a diameter of 30 feet and a height of 600 feet? Use 3.14 for tt
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

the volume is about 1884

Step-by-step explanation:

v of cone= 1/3(pi)r^2h

diameter to radius is 30=5.477225575051661

so 1/3(3.14)5.477225575051661^2(60)

=1/3(3.14)30(60)

=1/3(5652)

=1884

hope this helps

7 0
3 years ago
Helppp mehh plzz..............
soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

i think it A

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Caden biked 1 2/5 miles in 1/4 hour. If it is currently 4:00 P.M. and he has to bike 14 miles. At what time will he be finished?
Arturiano [62]

Answer:

He will finish the biking at 6:30 pm

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 hour is same as 1/4 * 60 = 15 minutes

1 2/5 miles is same as 1.4 miles

He bikes 1.4 miles in 15 minutes

then he will bike 14 miles in 15 * 10 = 150 minutes

150

minutes is same as 2 hours 30 minutes

Adding this to 4 pm, we will get;

6:30 pm

6 0
3 years ago
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