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sergey [27]
3 years ago
7

Simplify 2 to the 5 power to the fourth power over 3 to the second power

Mathematics
1 answer:
melisa1 [442]3 years ago
4 0
I'm assuming you mean 2^(5)(4/3)(2). 
So multiplying all of the powers together yields 2^(40/3)
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Find two ratios equivalent to the ratio 8:5
kiruha [24]
16:10 and also 24:15
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the greatest ten you can multiply by 2 to get close to but not over 58?
ExtremeBDS [4]

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

20 x 2 =40

40 is under 58 and the closest to 58

the next 10 is 30 and 30 x 30 is over 58 with 60

3 0
2 years ago
Find the number that makes the ratio equivalent to 1:6.<br> 9:__
Anarel [89]
Answer: 54

-------------------------------------------------------------------

Explanation:

The first ratio is 1:6. The jump from 1 to 6 has us multiplying the 1 by 6 to get 6. 
1*6 = 6
So we follow the same rule of "multiply by 6" to go from 9 to 54 (9*6 = 54)

Or you can use a proportion to get
1/6 = 9/x
1*x = 6*9 ... cross multiply
x = 54
and we get the same answer
6 0
3 years ago
A player tosses a die 6 times.If gets a number 6 Atleast two times he wins 2 dollars ,otherwise he looses 1 dollar.. Find the ex
swat32

Answer:

E(x)=-0.2101

Step-by-step explanation:

The expected value for a discrete variable is calculated as:

E(x)=x_1*p(x_1)+x_2*p(x_2)

Where x_1 and x_2 are the values that the variable can take and p(x_1) and p(x_2) are their respective probabilities.

So, a player can win 2 dollars or looses 1 dollar, it means that x_1 is equal to 2 and x_2 is equal to -1.

Then, we need to calculated the probability that the player win 2 dollars and the probability that the player loses 1 dollar.

If there are n identical and independent events with a probability p of success and a probability (1-p) of fail, the probability that a events from the n are success are equal to:

P(a)=nCa*p^a*(1-p)^{n-a}

Where nCa=\frac{n!}{a!(n-a)!}

So, in this case, n is number of times that the player tosses a die and p is the probability to get a 6. n is equal to 6 and p is equal to 1/6.

Therefore, the probability  p(x_1) that a player get at least two times number 6, is calculated as:

p(x_1)=P(x\geq2)=1-P(0)-P(1) \\\\P(0) =6C0*(1/6)^{0}*(5/6)^{6}=0.3349\\P(1)=6C1*(1/6)^{1}*(5/6)^{5}=0.4018\\\\p(x_1)=1-0.3349-0.4018\\p(x_1)=0.2633

On the other hand, the probability p(x_2) that a player don't get  at least two times number 6, is calculated as:

p(x_2)=1-p(x_1)=1-0.2633=0.7367

Finally, the expected value of the amount that the player wins is:

E(x)=x_1*p(x_1)+x_2*p(x_2)\\E(x)=2*(0.2633)+ (-1)*0.7367\\E(x)=-0.2101

It means that he can expect to loses 0.2101 dollars.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The club sold shirts and capes to raise money for new stage equipment. The club sold each shirt for $20.00. The club made profit
Butoxors [25]

Answer:

The club made a profit of $96 from the shirt sale.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you have to find the number of shirts sold by dividing the total amount sold by the price per shirt:

480/20=24

Now, that you know the number of shirts that were sold, you can multiply the profit per shirt for the number of shirts sold:

4*24=96

According to this, the answer is that the club made a profit of $96 from the shirt sale.

4 0
3 years ago
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