Answer:
The profit margin controllable by the Central Valley segment manager is: $ 95,000.
Explanation:
Only items directly controllable by the Manager should be included in the divisional financial performance measure.
<u>Central Valley Division</u>
Revenues $ 405,000
Less Variable Costs :
Variable operating expenses ($ 230,000)
Controllable Contribution $ 175,000
Less Controllable fixed expenses ($80,000)
Controllable Profit $ 95,000
The choices can be found elsewhere and as follows:
A. marketing strategy-type information;sales data
B. results of surveys on consumer satisfaction; accounts payables
C. transactions such as sales, payroll, and other expenses; financial statements
D.transactions such as the cash flow statement; payroll taxes
I think the correct answer is option D. In a private company’s accounting system, inputs are transactions such as the cash flow statement and outputs are payroll taxes. Hope this answers the question.
Examples of internal failure costs include warranty service and complaint handling. As a result, choice b is accurate.
<h3>
What do you mean by internal failure cost?</h3>
Internal failure costs are expenses related to flaws discovered prior to the client receiving the good or service. External failure costs are expenses related to flaws discovered after the client has purchased the good or service.
Internal failure costs are quality expenses related to product flaws found before a product leaves the facility.
Hence, warranty services all are examples of the internal failure cost.
Learn more about internal failure costs:
brainly.com/question/14802565
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Answer:
Step 1:
Start by setting it up with the divisor 20 on the left side and the dividend 16 on the right side like this:
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
Step 2:
The divisor (20) goes into the first digit of the dividend (1), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
Step 3:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
0
Step 4:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (1 - 0 = 1) and write the answer below.
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1
Step 5:
Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (6) like this:
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
Step 6:
The divisor (20) goes into the bottom number (16), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
Step 7:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer at the bottom:
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
0
Step 8:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (16 - 0 = 16) and write the answer at the bottom.
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
- 0
1 6
You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend.
The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number.
Therefore, the answer to 16 divided by 20 calculated using Long Division is:
0
16 Remainder
Explanation:
A I think dont trust me though but i think a
