Given:
To find:
Whether f(x) and g(x) are inverse of each other by using that f(g(x)) = x and g(f(x)) = x.
Solution:
We know that, two function are inverse of each other if:
and 
We have,
Now,
![[\because g(x)=\dfrac{8}{x}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cbecause%20g%28x%29%3D%5Cdfrac%7B8%7D%7Bx%7D%5D)
![[\because f(x)=\dfrac{8}{x}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cbecause%20f%28x%29%3D%5Cdfrac%7B8%7D%7Bx%7D%5D)
Similarly,
Since, and , therefore, f(x) and g(x) are inverse of each other.
The pictures may be in a different order for you but it’s the 3rd graph where the minimum is (-4,-1)
1/2 = fraction. 1.2= decimal 12%= percent
<h3>
Answer: 3 units</h3>
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Explanation:
The y coordinates are identical, so we just need to focus on the x coordinates.
Going from 0 to -3 is a distance of 3 units. Drawing out a number line might help.
Or we could apply subtraction and absolute value
|x1-x2| = |0-(-3)| = |0+3| = |3| = 3
which is the same as
|x2-x1| = |-3-0| = |-3| = 3
The absolute value is to ensure the result is never negative. Distance is never negative.
Side note: if the y coordinates weren't the same, then we'd have to use either the pythagorean theorem or the distance formula.
Answer:
i believe a quadratic function
Step-by-step explanation:
quadratics are when an equation is x^2 so yeah (sorry if thats not what it's asking)
