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Ksju [112]
3 years ago
14

Kristen lives directly east of the park. The football field is directly south of the park. The library sits on the line formed b

etween Kristen’s home and the football field at the exact point where an altitude to the right triangle formed by her home, the park, and the football field could be drawn. The library is 2 miles from her home. The football field is 8 miles from the library.

Mathematics
1 answer:
guajiro [1.7K]3 years ago
6 0
With that information you can determine how far the park is from the football field.

Call h the height of the triangle, x the distance from the park to the football field and y the distance from the park to the home of Kristen.

Using Pithagora's theorem, ou can state this system of equations:

1) From the complet triangle: x^2 + y^2 = (8 + 2)^2 = 10^2 = 100

2) From the triangle whose hypotenuse is the distance from the park to the football field:

x^2 = 8^2 + h^2

3) From the triangle whose hypotenuse is the distance from the park to the home of Kristen:

y^2 = 2^2 + h^2

To solve the system start by subtracting equation 3) from equation 1) =>

x^2 + y^2 = 100
y^2 = 4 + h^2
---------------------
x^2 = 100 - 4 - h^2

x^2 = 96 - h^2

Now sum this result to equation 2

x^2 = 96 - h^2
x^2 = 64 + h^2
---------------------
2x^2 = 96 + 64

2x^2 = 160

=> x^2 = 80

=> x = 8.94

Answer: 8.94 miles
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40 minutes is not a full hour so you need to convert this to hours

40 minutes / 60 minutes = 2/3 of an hour

So a car driving at the rate of 34 2/3 mph will go

34 2/3 * 2/3 = Miles in 40 minutes

40 * (4/9) = ?or

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7 0
3 years ago
Scott walks to and from school each day. Each round trip is 3 kilometers long.
natka813 [3]

The equation that shows the relationship between the number of round trips, x and the number of kilometers, y Scott walked is y = 3x

Each round trip = 3 km

x = number of rounds

y = number of km he has walked in all.

1 rounds  = 3 km

Therefore,

x rounds = 3x km

Each round of trip covers 3km. This means for each round of trip a distance of 3km is covered. The total distance or number of kilometers is represented with y.

The equation to show the relationship between x(number of rounds) and y (number of km) can be represented below

  • y = 3x

read more: brainly.com/question/14197865?referrer=searchResults

8 0
3 years ago
The price of gold is often reported per ounce. At the end of 2005, this price was $513. At the end of 2015, it was $1060. By wha
kondor19780726 [428]

Answer:

106.6 %.

Step-by-step explanation:

That would be  (1060- 513) / 513) * 100

= 106.6 %.

7 0
3 years ago
Gabriella made 5% of her free throws over the season. If she shot 180 free throws, how
faust18 [17]
171. Have a nice day!
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Show that if X is a geometric random variable with parameter p, then
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{p(1-p)^{k-1}}{k}=-\frac{p ln p}{1-p}

Step-by-step explanation:

The geometric distribution represents "the number of failures before you get a success in a series of Bernoulli trials. This discrete probability distribution is represented by the probability density function:"

P(X=x)=(1-p)^{x-1} p

Let X the random variable that measures the number os trials until the first success, we know that X follows this distribution:

X\sim Geo (1-p)

In order to find the expected value E(1/X) we need to find this sum:

E(X)=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{p(1-p)^{k-1}}{k}

Lets consider the following series:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} b^{k-1}

And let's assume that this series is a power series with b a number between (0,1). If we apply integration of this series we have this:

\int_{0}^b \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} r^{k-1}=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \int_{0}^b r^{k-1} dt=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{b^k}{k}   (a)

On the last step we assume that 0\leq r\leq b and \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} r^{k-1}=\frac{1}{1-r}, then the integral on the left part of equation (a) would be 1. And we have:

\int_{0}^b \frac{1}{1-r}dr=-ln(1-b)

And for the next step we have:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{b^{k-1}}{k}=\frac{1}{b}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{b^k}{k}=-\frac{ln(1-b)}{b}

And with this we have the requiered proof.

And since b=1-p we have that:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{p(1-p)^{k-1}}{k}=-\frac{p ln p}{1-p}

4 0
3 years ago
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