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insens350 [35]
3 years ago
13

What is the measure of CBE?36°72°108°144°​

Mathematics
2 answers:
cricket20 [7]3 years ago
5 0
The answer is 72 degrees
Lina20 [59]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

72 DEGREES

Step-by-step explanation:

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4+ |2-3x| =7<br> solve for all values of x in simplest form
Simora [160]

Answer:

x = 1/12

1/12 = 0.833

Step-by-step explanation:

to find the value of x

4+ |2-3x| =7

8 - 12x = 7

-12x = 7-8

-12x = -1

x = 1/12

if we write 1/12 in simplest form so

1/12 = 0.833

5 0
3 years ago
The pie chart to the right shows how adults rate their financial shape. Suppose 4 people are chosen at random from a group of 14
Salsk061 [2.6K]

<u>Question Completion</u>

PIE CHART NUMBERS:

  • Excellent 9%
  • Good 41%
  • Fair 36%
  • Poor 13%
  • Other 1%

Answer:

0.000063

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of Respondents, n=1400

Probability that they would rate their financial shape as​ excellent = 0.09

Number of Those who would rate their financial shape as excellent

=0.09 X 1400

=126

Therefore:

The probability that 4 people chosen at random would rate their financial shape as​ excellent

=\dfrac{^{126}C_4 \times ^{1400-126}C_0}{^{1400}C_4} \\=\dfrac{^{126}C_4 \times ^{1274}C_0}{^{1400}C_4}\\=0.000063 $(correct to 6 decimal places)

6 0
3 years ago
Reinhardt Furniture Company has 40,000 shares of cumulative preferred 2% stock, $150 par and 100,000 shares of $5 par common sto
Ann [662]

Answer:

for year 1

common stock =  $1.75 per share

preferred stock  = Zero

for year 2

common stock =  $4.25 per share

preferred stock  = $0.3 per share

for year 3

common stock =   $3 per share

preferred stock  =  $2 per share

Step-by-step explanation:

step 1

preferred stock value =  (40000 shares * $150) = $6000000

common stock value  = (100000 shares * $5) = $500000

 step 2

For year 1:

Dividend on preferred stock;

\frac{6000000 * 2}{100} = $120000

But total dividend in the question was $70000 therefore total amount of  dividend on cumulative preferred stock is $70000.

hence, dividend per share

= \frac{70000}{40000 shares} = $1.75 per share

Dividend on common stock;

70,000 - 70,000 = Zero

as total dividend distributed in year 1 is insufficient for cumulative preferred stock therefore no dividend will be paid on common stock.

For year 2:

Dividend on cumulative preferred stock;

\frac{6000000 * 2}{100}= $120000

extra dividend of year 1 ($120000 - $70000) = $50000

Thus total dividend on cumulative preferred stock

($120000 + $50000) = $170000

So dividend per share

\frac{170000}{40000\ shares}= $4.25 per share

Dividend on common stock;

($200000 – $170000) = $30000

dividend per share

\frac{30000}{100000\ shares} = $0.3 per share

For year 3:

Dividend on cumulative preferred stock;

\frac{6000000 * 2}{100} = $120000

total dividend on cumulative preferred stock $120000

dividend per share

\frac{120000}{40000 shares} = $3 per share

No dividend was extra in the year 2 therefore only available dividend of this year will be paid.

Dividend on common stock;

($320000 – $120000) = $200000

dividend per share

\frac{200000}{100000\ shares}= $2 per share

3 0
3 years ago
You must write your answer in fully simplified form.<br>2t= -12​
Katarina [22]

Answer:

t=-6

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
1 year ago
Simplify the expression below.<br> 4+2^3 -|-4|
pantera1 [17]
Answer:

8

Explanation:

Too lazy to type it all
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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