The answer would be:
Korea: 6
Italy: 7
France: 8
6, 7, 8 are consecutive numbers because they go in the order that you would count from 1-x(an infinite number) with.
I hope this helped! If you have further questions don't be afraid to ask!
~Travis
Answer:
10.5
Step-by-step explanation:
Break the problem down into small parts:
2 to the power of 3= 8
8+7+6=
15+6=21
21/2
21 divided by 2 is 10.5
Hope this helps!
*Given
Money of Phoebe - 3 times as much as Andy
Money of Andy - 2 times as much as Polly
Total money of Phoebe, - £270
Andy and Polly
*Solution
Let
B - Phoebe's money
A - Andy's money
L - Polly's money
1. The money of the Phoebe, Andy, and Polly, when added together would total £270. Thus,
B + A + L = £270 (EQUATION 1)
2. Phoebe has three times as much money as Andy and this is expressed as
B = 3A
3. Andy has twice as much money as Polly and this is expressed as
A = 2L (EQUATION 2)
4. This means that Phoebe has ____ as much money as Polly,
B = 3A
B = 3 x (2L)
B = 6L (EQUATION 3)
This step allows us to eliminate the variables B and A in EQUATION 1 by expressing the equation in terms of Polly's money only.
5. Substituting B with 6L, and A with 2L, EQUATION 1 becomes,
6L + 2L + L = £270
9L = £270
L = £30
So, Polly has £30.
6. Substituting L into EQUATIONS 2 and 3 would give us the values for Andy's money and Phoebe's money, respectively.
A = 2L
A = 2(£30)
A = £60
Andy has £60
B = 6L
B = 6(£30)
B = £180
Phoebe has £180
Therefore, Polly's money is £30, Andy's is £60, and Phoebe's is £180.
Answer:
40.35
Step-by-step explanation:
First find the discount
97 * 60%
97 *.6 = 58.2
Subtract the discount to find the new price
97-58.20 =38.80
Next find the tax
38.80 * 4%
38.80 * .04
1.55
We add the tax to the sales price
38.8+1.55
40.35
For the proof here kindly check the attachment.
We are given that
. Also, the transversal is shown. Let us take the first case, that of 
and 
. Please note that all other proofs will follow in a similar manner.
Let us begin, please have a nice look at the diagram. We will see that and 
are vertically opposite angles. We know that vertically opposite angles are congruent. Thus, and are congruent angles.
=
Now, we know that and are alternate interior angles. We also, know that alternate interior angles are equal too. Thus, we have:
=
From the above arguments it is clear that:
= = .
Thus, =
We have proven the first instance. Please note that all other instances can be proved in a similar fashion.
For example, for 
and 
we can take and 
as vertically opposite angles thus making = . Now, and are alternate interior angles and thus and are equal. Thus, we have and .
