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Alik [6]
3 years ago
13

If you have a vertical angle and the side angles are 83 and 83 whats the other one?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Hoochie [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

97°

Step-by-step explanation:

you do 83*2=166 and then 360-166=194 which is the total sum of the two unknown vertical angles. once you have that, divide it by 2 to get 194/2=97° as the measure of each individual unknow vertical angle

netineya [11]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

your answer is 97

Step-by-step explanation:

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Noah fills a soap dispenser from a big bottle that contains 2 1/3 liters of liquid soap. That amount of soap will fill 3 1/2 dis
kakasveta [241]

Answer:

1 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

3 1/2 / 2 1/3

6 0
2 years ago
What is the slope of the line with the equation 3x = -y − 5
prisoha [69]

This equation is written in <em>standard form</em>, so we need to change it into <em>slope-intercept form.</em>

<em />

3x = -y - 5

3x + y = -y + y - 5

3x + y = -5

3x - 3x + y = -5 - 3x

y = -5 - 3x

y = -3x - 5

The slope is classified as "m" in this type of equation, so, the slope is -3.

Best of Luck!

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Select the correct answer. What is the solution to this equation? -10 + (x) = -4 A. x = -9 or x = 4 B. X = 9 or x = 21 c. x=-9 o
Bogdan [553]

Answer:

The solution isn't listed

Step-by-step explanation:

x = 6 because you add -10 to -4 and you get 6

7 0
2 years ago
Stacy uses a spinner with six equal sections numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 to play a game. Write a probability model for this ex
allsm [11]

Answer:

We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

P(X=k) = \binom{50}{k}(\frac{1}{6})^k(\frac{5}{6})^{50-k}

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.

Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.

Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have \frac{50}{6} number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following ordered pairs is a solution of x + 1/2 y = 1?
ololo11 [35]
X+y/2=1
-2+6/2=1

-2 + 3 =1   true

⇒ ( -2, 6) is the solution
6 0
3 years ago
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