PLEASE HELP:)

2 answers:

8 0

<mkb because of the isosceles triangle theorem. If two sides of a triangle are congruent, it is isosceles, so the angles opposite them are also congruent.
Hope this helps!

Ronch [10]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that a line segment BK is an angle bisector of triangle ABC.

When the line KM intersects BC such that BM=MK

we find an isosceles triangle BMK with two sides equal

Hence by isosceles triangles theorem, two angles opposite equal sides would be equal

i.e. $m∠MBK≅m∠_BKM____$

The isosceles triangle theorem states that If two sides of a triangle are congruent, then angles opposite those sides are congruent.

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Andrej [43]

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6 0

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hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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