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Eva8 [605]
3 years ago
9

The engine in an imaginary sports car can provide constant power to the wheels over a range of speeds from 0 to 70 miles per hou

r (mph). At full power, the car can accelerate from zero to 29.0 mph in time 1.10 s .A more realistic car would cause the wheels to spin in a manner that would result in the ground pushing it forward with a constant force (in contrast to the constant power in Part A). If such a sports car went from zero to 29.0 mph in time 1.10 s , how long would it take to go from zero to 58.0 mph ?
Physics
1 answer:
bekas [8.4K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2.2 seconds

Explanation:

t = Time taken

u = Initial velocity

v = Final velocity

s = Displacement

a = Acceleration

Converting mph to m/s

29\ mph=29\times 0.44704=12.96\ m/s

58\ mph=58\times 0.44704=25.93\ m/s

v=u+at\\\Rightarrow a=\frac{v-u}{t}\\\Rightarrow a=\frac{12.96-0}{1.1}\\\Rightarrow a=11.78\ m/s^2

Considering this acceleration to be constant

v=u+at\\\Rightarrow t=\frac{v-u}{a}\\\Rightarrow t=\frac{25.93-0}{11.78}\\\Rightarrow t=2.20\ s

Time it would take to go from zero to 58.0 mph is 2.2 seconds

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Blizzard [7]

Answer:

(a). forms.

Explanation:

Bro even i ain't sure.

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A 54 kg person stands on a uniform 20 kg, 4.1 m long ladder resting against a frictionless wall.
SVETLANKA909090 [29]

A) Force of the wall on the ladder: 186.3 N

B) Normal force of the ground on the ladder: 725.2 N

C) Minimum value of the coefficient of friction: 0.257

D) Minimum absolute value of the coefficient of friction: 0.332

Explanation:

a)

The free-body diagram of the problem is in attachment (please rotate the picture 90 degrees clockwise). We have the following forces:

W=mg: weight of the ladder, with m = 20 kg (mass) and g=9.8 m/s^2 (acceleration of gravity)

W_M=Mg: weight of the person, with M = 54 kg (mass)

N_1: normal reaction exerted by the wall on the ladder

N_2: normal reaction exerted by the floor on the ladder

F_f = \mu N_2: force of friction between the floor and the ladder, with \mu (coefficient of friction)

Also we have:

L = 4.1 m (length of the ladder)

d = 3.0 m (distance of the man from point A)

Taking the equilibrium of moments about point A:

W\frac{L}{2}sin 21^{\circ}+W_M dsin 21^{\circ} = N_1 Lsin 69^{\circ}

where

Wsin 21^{\circ} is the component of the weight of the ladder perpendicular to the ladder

W_M sin 21^{\circ} is the component of the weight of the man perpendicular to the ladder

N_1 sin 69^{\circ} is the component of the normal  force perpendicular to the ladder

And solving for N_1, we find the force exerted by the wall on the ladder:

N_1 = \frac{W}{2}\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}+W_M \frac{d}{L}\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}=\frac{mg}{2}\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}+Mg\frac{d}{L}\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}=\frac{(20)(9.8)}{2}\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}+(54)(9.8)\frac{3.0}{4.1}\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}=186.3 N

B)

Here we want to find the magnitude of the normal force of the ground on the ladder, therefore the magnitude of N_2.

We can do it by writing the equation of equilibrium of the forces along the vertical direction: in fact, since the ladder is in equilibrium the sum of all the forces acting in the vertical direction must be zero.

Therefore, we have:

\sum F_y = 0\\N_2 - W - W_M =0

And substituting and solving for N2, we find:

N_2 = W+W_M = mg+Mg=(20)(9.8)+(54)(9.8)=725.2 N

C)

Here we have to find the minimum value of the coefficient of friction so that the ladder does not slip.

The ladder does not slip if there is equilibrium in the horizontal direction also: that means, if the sum of the forces acting in the horizontal direction is zero.

Therefore, we can write:

\sum F_x = 0\\F_f - N_1 = 0

And re-writing the equation,

\mu N_2 -N_1 = 0\\\mu = \frac{N_1}{N_2}=\frac{186.3}{725.2}=0.257

So, the minimum value of the coefficient of friction is 0.257.

D)

Here we want to find the minimum coefficient of friction so the ladder does not slip for any location of the person on the ladder.

From part C), we saw that the coefficient of friction can be written as

\mu = \frac{N_1}{N_2}

This ratio is maximum when N1 is maximum. From part A), we see that the expression for N1 was

N_1 = \frac{W}{2}\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}+W_M \frac{d}{L}\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}

We see that this quantity is maximum when d is maximum, so when

d = L

Which corresponds to the case in which the man stands at point B, causing the maximum torque about point A. In this case, the value of N1 is:

N_1 = \frac{W}{2}\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}+W_M \frac{L}{L}\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}=\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}(\frac{W}{2}+W_M)

And substituting, we get

N_1=\frac{sin 21^{\circ}}{sin 69^{\circ}}(\frac{(20)(9.8)}{2}+(54)(9.8))=240.8 N

And therefore, the minimum coefficient of friction in order for the ladder not to slip is

\mu=\frac{N_1}{N_2}=\frac{240.8}{725.2}=0.332

Learn more about torques and equilibrium:

brainly.com/question/5352966

#LearnwithBrainly

7 0
3 years ago
a vertical polarizing filter is used on the lens of a camera. Which of the following do not strike the lens?
ziro4ka [17]
A vertical polarizing filter is used on the lens of a camera,  they block out the light that is horizontally polarized, so they allow all of the vertically polarized<span> light to pass through.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
How will the force of friction affect a wood block being pushed over a table?
olasank [31]

Answer:

D

friction acts in the opposite direction of motion but does not affect the motion of the object

5 0
2 years ago
The volume occupied by a sample of gas is 480 mL when the pressure is 115 kPa.What pressure must be applied to the gas to make i
balandron [24]

Answer:

The answer is

<h2>84.9 kPa</h2>

Explanation:

Using Boyle's law to find the final pressure

That's

P_1V_1 = P_2V_2

where

P1 is the initial pressure

P2 is the final pressure

V1 is the initial volume

V2 is the final volume

Since we are finding the final pressure

P_2 =  \frac{P_1V_1}{V_2}

From the question

P1 = 115 kPa

V1 = 480 mL

V2 = 650 ml

So we have

P_2 =  \frac{115000 \times 480}{650}  = \frac{55200000}{650}  \\  = 84923.076923...

We have the final answer as

<h3>84.9 kPa</h3>

Hope this helps you

7 0
3 years ago
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