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Illusion [34]
3 years ago
14

A water tank holds 1,000 gallons of water. How many cubic meters is this?

Physics
1 answer:
lora16 [44]3 years ago
4 0
I have no idea what the exact answer is, so sorry in advance but ik it’s definitely less than four, but greater than three.. lol hope that helps some
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A projectile of mass m is launched with an initial velocity vector v i making an angle θ with the horizontal as shown below. The
sergeinik [125]
Angular momentum is given by the length of the arm to the object, multiplied by the momentum of the object, times the cosine of the angle that the momentum vector makes with the arm. From your illustration, that will be: 
<span>L = R * m * vi * cos(90 - theta) </span>

<span>cos(90 - theta) is just sin(theta) </span>
<span>and R is the distance the projectile traveled, which is vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / g </span>

<span>so, we have: L = vi^2 * sin(2*theta) * m * vi * sin(theta) / g </span>

<span>We can combine the two vi terms and get: </span>

<span>L = vi^3 * m * sin(theta) * sin(2*theta) / g </span>

<span>What's interesting is that angular momentum varies with the *cube* of the initial velocity. This is because, not only does increased velocity increase the translational momentum of the projectile, but it increase the *moment arm*, too. Also note that there might be a trig identity which lets you combine the two sin() terms, but nothing jumps out at me right at the moment. </span>

<span>Now, for the first part... </span>

<span>There are a few ways to attack this. Basically, you have to find the angle from the origin to the apogee (highest point) in the arc. Once we have that, we'll know what angle the momentum vector makes with the moment-arm because, at the apogee, we know that all of the motion is *horizontal*. </span>

<span>Okay, so let's get back to what we know: </span>

<span>L = d * m * v * cos(phi) </span>

<span>where d is the distance (length to the arm), m is mass, v is velocity, and phi is the angle the velocity vector makes with the arm. Let's take these one by one... </span>

<span>m is still m. </span>
<span>v is going to be the *hoizontal* component of the initial velocity (all the vertical component got eliminated by the acceleration of gravity). So, v = vi * cos(theta) </span>
<span>d is going to be half of our distance R in part two (because, ignoring friction, the path of the projectile is a perfect parabola). So, d = vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g </span>

<span>That leaves us with phi, the angle the horizontal velocity vector makes with the moment arm. To find *that*, we need to know what the angle from the origin to the apogee is. We can find *that* by taking the arc-tangent of the slope, if we know that. Well, we know the "run" part of the slope (it's our "d" term), but not the rise. </span>

<span>The easy way to get the rise is by using conservation of energy. At the apogee, all of the *vertical* kinetic energy at the time of launch (1/2 * m * (vi * sin(theta))^2 ) has been turned into gravitational potential energy ( m * g * h ). Setting these equal, diving out the "m" and dividing "g" to the other side, we get: </span>

<span>h = 1/2 * (vi * sin(theta))^2 / g </span>

<span>So, there's the rise. So, our *slope* is rise/run, so </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * (vi * sin(theta))^2 / g ] / [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / g ] </span>

<span>The "g"s cancel. Astoundingly the "vi"s cancel, too. So, we get: </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * sin(theta)^2 ] / [ sin(2*theta) ] </span>

<span>(It's not too alarming that slope-at-apogee doesn't depend upon vi, since that only determines the "magnitude" of the arc, but not it's shape. Whether the overall flight of this thing is an inch or a mile, the arc "looks" the same). </span>

<span>Okay, so... using our double-angle trig identities, we know that sin(2*theta) = 2*sin(theta)*cos(theta), so... </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * sin(theta)^2 ] / [ 2*sin(theta)*cos(theta) ] = tan(theta)/4 </span>

<span>Okay, so the *angle* (which I'll call "alpha") that this slope makes with the x-axis is just: arctan(slope), so... </span>

<span>alpha = arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) </span>

<span>Alright... last bit. We need "phi", the angle the (now-horizontal) momentum vector makes with that slope. Draw it on paper and you'll see that phi = 180 - alpha </span>

<span>so, phi = 180 - arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) </span>

<span>Now, we go back to our original formula and plug it ALL in... </span>

<span>L = d * m * v * cos(phi) </span>

<span>becomes... </span>

<span>L = [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g ] * m * [ vi * cos(theta) ] * [ cos( 180 - arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) ) ] </span>

<span>Now, cos(180 - something) = cos(something), so we can simplify a little bit... </span>

<span>L = [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g ] * m * [ vi * cos(theta) ] * [ cos( arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) ) ] </span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How does muscle fatigue affect the amount of work that muscles can do?
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

by straining that muscle it can slow down the amount of muscle your supposed to get

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An ideal spring with spring constant k is hung from the ceiling. The initial length of the spring, with nothing attached to the
hram777 [196]

The mass m of the object = 5.25 kg

<h3>Further explanation</h3>

Given

k = spring constant = 3.5 N/cm

Δx= 30 cm - 15 cm = 15 cm

Required

the mass m

Solution

F=m.g

Hooke's Law

F = k.Δx

\tt m.g=k.\Delta x\\\\m.10=3.5\times 15\\\\m=5.25~kg

7 0
3 years ago
A large fake cookie sliding on a horizontal surface is attached to one end of a horizontal spring with spring constant k = 440 N
irinina [24]

Answer:

a) 0.275 m b) 13.6 J

Explanation:

In absence of friction, the energy is exchanged between the spring (potential energy) and the cookie (kinetic energy), so at any point, the sum of both energies must be the same:

E = ½ kx2 + ½ mv2

If we take as initial state, the instant when the cookie is passing through the spring’s equilibrium position, all the energy is kinetic, and we know that is equal to 20.0 J.

After sliding to the right, while is being acted on by a friction force, it came momentarily at rest. At this point, the initial kinetic energy, has become potential elastic energy, in part, and in thermal energy also, represented by the work done by the friction force.

So, for this state, we can say the following:

Ki = Uf + Eth = ½* k*d2 + Ff*d

20.0J = ½ *440 N/m* d2 + 11.0 *d, where d is the compressed length of the spring, which is equal to the distance travelled by the cookie before coming momentarily at rest.

We have a quadratic equation, that, after simplifying terms, can be solved as follows, applying the quadratic formula:

d = -0.05/2 +/- √0.090625 = -0.025 +/- 0.3 = 0.275 m (we take the positive root)

b) If we take as our new initial status the moment at which the spring is compressed, and the cookie is at rest, all the energy is potential:

E = Ui = 1/2 k d²

In this case, d is the same value that we got in a), i.e., 0.275 m (as the distance travelled by the cookie after going through the equilibrium point is the same length that the spring have been compressed).

E= 1/2 440 N/m . (0.275)m² = 16.6 J

When the cookie passes again through the equilibrium position, the energy will be in part kinetic, and in part, it will have become thermal energy again.

So, we can write the following equation:

Kf = Ui - Ff.d = 16.6 J - 11.0 (0.275) m = 16.6 J - 3.03 J = 13.6 J

3 0
3 years ago
Do someone know the answer
JulijaS [17]
Speed x time = distance
Distance divided by time = speed
500 divided by 5
Speed = 100
4 0
3 years ago
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