Answer:
C.1/6
Step-by-step explanation:
Initially the box has four $1 and six $5 bills. The probability of selecting a $5 bill in the first trial would be given as;
(number of $5 bills) / (total number of bills)
= (6)/(4+6) = 3/5
If in the first attempt we actually pick a $5 bill, the number of $5 bills will reduce by one to 5. Now, the probability of picking a $5 bill in the second attempt will be given as;
(new number of $5 bills) / (new total number of bills)
= (5)/(4+5) = 5/9
The new number of $5 bills will now be; 6 - 2 = 4 since we have already picked 2 without replacing them.
Now, the probability of picking a $5 bill in the third attempt will be given as;
(new number of $5 bills) / (new total number of bills)
= (4)/(4+4) = 1/2
Since the three attempts are independent, the probability of picking all three $5 bills is;
3/5 * 5/9 * 1/2 = 1/6
1 Expand
1.4t-0.4t+1.24=5.8
2 Simplify 1.4t-0.4t+1.241.4t−0.4t+1.24 to t+1.24t+1.24
t+1.24=5.8
3 Subtract 1.241.24 from both sides
t=5.8−1.24
4 Simplify 5.8-1.245.8−1.24 to 4.564.56
t=4.56
Answer:
=46.27in
Step-by-step explanation:
All you need to do is plug -5 into the second equation and you see it is near (-5, -8). When plugged into the top, you get (-5, -27/4) which comes out to ABOUT -6.75 for the Y value. The closest is actually a tie. The first option is .8 from the first and .45 from the second leading in a total distance of 1.25. The second, which is the fellow answer, is 1.2 from the first and .05 from the second, leading to 1.25 away.
The third, which is next closest is 1.8 from the first and .55 from the second leading to a distance of over 2 from the optimal, so only the first two are answers.
Answer: answer is c
Step-by-step explanation: quizlet
