Answer:
salaries expense 81,000 debit
salaries payable 81,000 credit
Explanation:
the recurrring salaries for a biwweekly salaries is 270,000
In two weaks assuming five-day work week, there is 10 days.
so we divide to get the expected wages per day the recurring salaries by the amount of days of that period:
270,000 / 10 = 27,000 per day
Then, we multiply by the 3 days from the current period:
27,000 x 3 = <u>81,000</u>
this will be the accrued expenses for the period
Padco averages $15 million worth of inventory in all of its worldwide locations. they operate 51 weeks a year and each week averages $3 million in sales (at cost). their inventory turnover is 10.2 turns.
Inventory turnover is a financial ratio that demonstrates how frequently a company sells and replaces inventory over a specific time frame. The days it takes to sell the company's inventory on hand can then be determined by multiplying the number of days in the period by the inventory turnover formula.
Businesses can improve their decisions about pricing, production, marketing, and the acquisition of new inventory by calculating inventory turnover.
Inventory turnover quantifies how frequently a business can replenish the stocks it has sold during a specific time period. A slower ratio suggests either strong sales or insufficient inventory, while a quicker ratio suggests either weak sales or high sales.
The industries with the largest inventory turnover rates tend to be those with low margins and high volumes, like supermarkets and merchants.
Learn more about inventory turnover here:
brainly.com/question/1492106
#SPJ4
Answer:
Monthly deposit= $840.74
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Number of periods= 26*12= 312 months
Future Value= $1,500,000
Interste rate= 0.11/12= 0.0092
<u>To calculate the monthly deposit, we need to use the following formula:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= monthly deposit
Isolating A:
A= (FV*i)/{[(1+i)^n]-1}
A= (1,500,000*0.0092) / [(1.0092^312) - 1]
A= $840.74
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": $24.
Explanation:
Opportunity cost can be defined as the cost of the best next available option after taking another decision in regards to a situation. It is also the return that the chosen option provides compared to the return that could have provided the option that was forgone.
In this case, choosing to go to the local carnival will represent losing one hour of working as a coach assistant ($15). Besides, as there is a $9 admission fee to the carnival, you will need to spend that money. Thus, the total opportunity cost of going to the carnival instead of working is $24 (<em>$15+$9=$24</em>).
Answer:
The omission of this entry understated accrued liabilites. given that the related inventory was sold in year 1, it aslo overstated net income and retained earnings by understating cost of goods sold, the same effects would occur if the insurance costs were chargeable to expense as a period cost
Explanation:
Rules specify that contingent liabilities should be recorded in the accounts when it is probable that the future event will occur and the amount of the liability can be reasonably estimated. This means that a loss would be recorded (debit) and a liability established (credit) in advance of the settlement.
