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Over [174]
2 years ago
9

When One Route and their support act, Cinnamon Bunnies, played, £54,000 was split at a ratio of 1:3:8 between the arena, Cinammo

n Bunnies and One Route. How much money did One Route make
Mathematics
2 answers:
olganol [36]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

<em>The amount of money One Route makes is £36,000</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

The ratio of the amounts of money the arena, Cinnamon Bunnies and One Route make is  1:3:8

So let's assume, the amounts of money the arena, Cinnamon Bunnies and One Route make are 1x,\ 3x\ and\ 8x respectively.

Given that, <u>the total amount of money is £54,000</u>. So, the equation will be.....

1x+3x+8x=54000\\ \\ 12x=54000\\ \\ x=\frac{54000}{12}=4500

So, the amount of money One Route makes =8x=(8*\£4500)=\£36,000

dimaraw [331]2 years ago
3 0

The ratio is split as arena first, Cinnamon Bunnies second and One Route third.

Add the ratios together: 1 + 3 +8 = 12

Divide the total money by 12, then multiply that by the share One Route gets (8)

54,000 / 12 = 4,500

4,500 x 8 = 36,000

One Route get £36,000

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using the pythagorean theorem, find the length of a leg of a right triangle if the other leg is 8 feet long and the hypotenuse i
8_murik_8 [283]
Phthagorean theorme is
a^2+b^2=c^2
where you have a right triangle and c =hypotonuse( normally the longest side, and opposite of right angle)
a and b are the legs

so we are given
one leg=8
hypotonues=10
subsitute
leg=a or b so just subsitute for one
subsitutt  for b
a^2+8^2=10^2
expand
8^2=64
10^2=100
a^2+64=100
subtract 64 from both sides
a^2=36
square root both sides
a=6
answe ris 6 feet
8 0
3 years ago
a system of equations is shown below: x y = 3 2x − y = 6 the x−coordinate of the solution to this system of equations is _____.
pychu [463]
If you would like to solve the system of equations x + y = 3 and 2x - y = 6, you can do this using the following steps:

<span>x + y = 3 ... y = 3 - x
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</span>_________
<span>2x - y = 6
</span>2x - (3 - x) = 6
2x - 3 + x = 6
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6 0
3 years ago
Please help!
Aleks [24]

Answer:

Probability of picking an even and then even number = \frac{1}{6}

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of picking a card with even number,

P(even 1) = \frac{\text{favorable outcomes}}{\text{Total outcomes}} = \frac{\text{even cards}}{\text{Total number of cards}}

               = \frac{2}{4}

               = \frac{1}{2}

Followed by picking a card which is even without putting the first card back.

So an even card is to be picked out of remaining 3 cards.

P(even 2) = \frac{\text{favorable outcomes}}{\text{Total outcomes}}

                = \frac{1}{3}

Now probability of both events = P(even 1) × P(even 2)

= \frac{1}{2}\times \frac{1}{3}

= \frac{1}{6}

Therefore, probability of both the events will be \frac{1}{6}.

5 0
3 years ago
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