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aliya0001 [1]
3 years ago
6

A person exerts a horizontal force of F=45N on the end of an 86cm wide door. The magnitude of the torque due to F about the pivo

t point is determined by |τ|=|rxF|=rFsinθ . Determine the magnitude of the torque, |τ| , on the door about its hinges due to F . |τ|=0Nm |τ|=38.7Nm |τ|=3870Nm

Physics
1 answer:
mina [271]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: The magnitude of torque is 38.7Nm

Explanation: Please see the attachment below

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An electron moves at 0.130 c as shown in the figure (Figure 1). There are points: A, B, C, and D 2.10 μm from the electron.
Olegator [25]

Hi there!

We can use Biot-Savart's Law for a moving particle:
B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v}\times \vec{r}}{r^2 }

B = Magnetic field strength (T)
v = velocity of electron (0.130c = 3.9 × 10⁷ m/s)

q = charge of particle (1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C)

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A)

r = distance from particle (2.10 μm)

There is a cross product between the velocity vector and the radius vector (not a quantity, but specifies a direction). We can write this as:

B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v} \vec{r}sin\theta}{r^2 }

Where 'θ' is the angle between the velocity and radius vectors.

a)
To find the angle between the velocity and radius vector, we find the complementary angle:

θ = 90° - 60° = 30°

Plugging 'θ' into the equation along with our other values:

B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v} \vec{r}sin\theta}{r^2 }\\\\B= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})}{4\pi}\frac{(1.6*10^{-19})(3.9*10^{7}) \vec{r}sin(30)}{(2.1*10^{-5})^2 }

B = \boxed{7.07 *10^{-10} T}

b)
Repeat the same process. The angle between the velocity and radius vector is 150°, and its sine value is the same as that of sin(30°). So, the particle's produced field will be the same as that of part A.

c)

In this instance, the radius vector and the velocity vector are perpendicular so

'θ' = 90°.

B= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})}{4\pi}\frac{(1.6*10^{-19})(3.9*10^{7}) \vec{r}sin(90)}{(2.1*10^{-5})^2 } = \boxed{1.415 * 10^{-9}T}

d)
This point is ALONG the velocity vector, so there is no magnetic field produced at this point.

Aka, the radius and velocity vectors are parallel, and since sin(0) = 0, there is no magnetic field at this point.

\boxed{B = 0 T}

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2 years ago
The energy of random atomic and molecular motion is called.
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Which of the following statements about features on the sun is true
pashok25 [27]
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A sailboat moves north for a distance of 15.00 km when blown by a wind from the exact southeast with a force of 3.00 x 10^-4 N.
Zolol [24]
These are actually 4 different exercises:

ex 1) The sailboat moves north, while the wind moves from southeast. This means the angle between the direction of the boat and the wind is 45^{\circ}.

Calling F the force of the wind, and d=15~km=15000~m the distance covered by the boat, the work done by the wind is:
W=Fdcos{\theta}=3\cdot10^{-4}~N \cdot 15000~m\cdot cos 45^{\circ}=3.18~J

The total time of the motion is t=1~h=3600~s and therefore the power of the wind is
P= \frac{W}{t} = \frac{3.18~J}{3600~s}=8.8\cdot10^{-4}~W

ex 2) First of all, let's calculate the length of the ramp. Given the two sizes 2.00 m and 6.00 m, we have
d= \sqrt{(2~m)^2+(6~m)^2}= 6.32~m

The mechanical advantage (MA) of the ramp is the ratio between the output load (W) and the input force (F). The output load is the weight of the load, mg, therefore:
MA= \frac{W}{F}= \frac{mg}{F}= \frac{195~Kg\cdot 9.81~m/s^2}{750~N}=2.55

Finally, the efficiency \epsilon of the ramp is the ratio between the output energy and the work done. The output energy is simply the potential energy (Ep) of the load, which is mgh, where h is the height of the ramp. The work done W is the product between the input force, F, and the displacement of the load, which is the length of the ramp: Fd. Therefore:
\epsilon =  \frac{E_p}{W}= \frac{mgh}{Fd}= \frac{195~Kg \cdot 9.81~m/s^2\cdot 2~m}{750~N\cdot6.32~m}=0.81

ex 3) the graph is missing

ex 4) We know that the power is the ratio between the work done W and the time t:
P= \frac{W}{t}
But we can rewrite the work as
W=Fdcos\theta
where F is the force applied, d the displacement of rock and \theta=60^{\circ] is the angle between the direction of the force and the displacement (3 m). 
Therefore we can rewrite the power as
P= \frac{W}{t} = \frac{F d cos\theta}{t}=F v cos\theta
where v=d/t=5~m/s is the velocity, Using the data of the exercise, we can then find the force, F:
F= \frac{P}{v cos\theta} =   \frac{250~W}{5~m/s \cdot cos 60^{\circ}}=100~N

and now we can also calculate the work, which is 
W=Fdcos 60^{\circ}=100~N\cdot 3~m \cos60^{\circ}=150~J
3 0
3 years ago
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