Assume company x deposits $100,000 in cash in a commercial bank. If no excess reserves exist at the time this deposit is made and the reserve ratio is 20 percent, the bank can increase loans by a maximum of $500,000.
Reserve ratio = 20% = 20/100 = 0.25
Initial Money supply = (1/Reserve ratio)*New Deposit = (100,000/0.25) = $ 400,000
Reserve ratio = Rerserve / Deposit
=> Reserves = 0.25*100,000 = 25,000
Max Increase in Money Supply = Initial Money Supply + Reserves/ Reserve Ratio
= $ 400,000 + 100,000
= $ 500,000.
The term commercial bank refers to financial institutions that accept deposits, provide checking account services, issue various loans, and provide basic financial products such as certificates of deposit (CDs) and savings accounts to individuals and small businesses. refers to
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Answer:
285,000 common stock outstanding with a $8 par value
it declares 13% stock dividend
market price at $16
since the stock dividend is considered small (less than 20%), we use the market price to record it
December 1, 202x stock dividends are declared (37,050 stocks)
Dr Retained earnings 592,800
Cr Common stock dividends distributable 296,400
Cr Additional paid in capital 296,400
December 31, 202x, distribution of stock dividends
Dr Common stock dividends distributable 296,400
Cr Common stock 296,400
Answer:
d. accretion
Explanation:
Accretion is the process by which new employees are added to a bargaining unit where they have common interest. It involves the gradual growth of business units. For example when unions transfer workers to a new employer.
Accretion occurs without election and is usually an operation of the law.
It helps preserve industrial stability by filling new jobs without going through an adversarial election process.
Answer and Explanation:
The computation of firm’s market value capital structure and the Weighted average cost of capital is shown with the help of spreadsheet. Kindly find it below
The formulas that we use in spreadsheet is shown below:-
WACC = Weightage of debt × cost of debt × ( 1- tax rate) + (Weightage of preferred stock) × (cost of preferred stock) + (Weightage of common stock) × (cost of common stock)
As per question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
The market rate of return - risk free rate of return = market risk premium
Answer: $329.75
Explanation:
The one year subscription is $40 per year. It is estimated that the average age of current subscribers is 38 and they will leave on average to 78. This means that they will leave for,
= 78 - 38
= 40 years
Evans Ltd average interest rate on long-term debt is 12% so this means that we can use that 12% as a discount rate for the cash-flow expected.
I have attached a Present Value Interest Factor of an Annuity table to this question. It helps calculate annuities faster.
The above can be treated as an annuity because the $40 is constant every year.
The present value of the $40 over 40 years can be calculated by,
= $40 * present value Interest Factor of an Annuity for 40 years at 12% (look at the table for where 40 years on the y axis intersects with 12% on the x axis)
= $40 * 8.2438 (this is the figure when it is not rounded off to 3 dp)
= $329.752
= $329.75
This shows that the lifetime flat fee of $480 is more profitable for Evans Ltd as opposed to the yearly subscription. They should therefore try to sell more of the lifetime contract with the flat fee.