Answer:
a) 8*88*10⁻⁶ ( 0.00088 %)
b) 0.2137 (21.37%)
Step-by-step explanation:
if the test contains 25 questions and each questions is independent of the others, then the random variable X= answer "x" questions correctly , has a binomial probability distribution. Then
P(X=x)= n!/((n-x)!*x!)*p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
where
n= total number of questions= 25
p= probability of getting a question right = 1/4
then
a) P(x=n) = p^n = (1/4)²⁵ = 8*88*10⁻⁶ ( 0.00088 %)
b) P(x<5)= F(5)
where F(x) is the cumulative binomial probability distribution- Then from tables
P(x<5)= F(5)= 0.2137 (21.37%)
Answer
V= Base x Height x Width
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
See below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Here's an example to illustrate the method:
f(x) = 3x^2 - 6x + 10
First divide the first 2 terms by the coefficient of x^2 , which is 3:
= 3(x^2 - 2x) + 10
Now divide the -2 ( in -2x) by 2 and write the x^2 - 2x in the form
(x - b/2)^2 - b/2)^2 (where b = 2) , which will be equal to x^2 - 2x in a different form.
= 3[ (x - 1)^2 - 1^2 ] + 10 (Note: we have to subtract the 1^2 because (x - 1)^2 = x^2 - 2x + 1^2 and we have to make it equal to x^2 - 2x)
= 3 [(x - 1)^2 -1 ] + 10
= 3(x - 1)^2 - 3 + 10
= <u>3(x - 1)^2 + 7 </u><------- Vertex form.
In general form the vertex form of:
ax^2 + bx + c = a [(x - b/2a)^2 - (b/2a)^2] + c .
This is not easy to commit to memory so I suggest the best way to do these conversions is to remember the general method.
4x+1+57=90
4x+58=90
4x=32
X=8
Howdy! My name is Christian and I’ll try and help you with this question!
Date: 9/29/20 Time: 9:08 am CST
Answer:
D.
{ (1, 3), (2, 3), (3, 3), (4, 3) }
Explanation:
This is because for each x value, the number on the left of the set, there is no other x values of the same number, ( 1, 2, 3, 4)
Hope this helps you with your question!
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<em>Christian
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