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Marianna [84]
3 years ago
7

Backstreets Co. recently acquired all of Jungleland Inc.’s net assets in a business acquisition. The cash purchase price was $6.

8 million. Jungleland’s assets and liabilities had the following appraised values immediately prior to the acquisition: land, $1.7 million; buildings, $3.4 million; inventory, $2.2 million; long-term notes payable, for which Backstreets Co. assumes payment responsibilities, $1.5 million. Required: How much goodwill will result from this transaction? (Enter your answers in whole dollars.)
Business
1 answer:
sveta [45]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The goodwill is $1.1 million

Explanation:

In this question, first we have to compute the net asset which is shown below:

Net asset = Total asset - total liabilities

where,

Total asset = Land + building + inventory

                  = $1.7 million + $3.4 million + $2.2 million

                  = $7.3 million

And, the total liabilities = long term note payable = $1.5 million

So, the net asset would equal to

= $7.3 million - $1.5 million

= $5.8 million

Now the goodwill equal to

=  Cash purchase price - net asset

= $6.8 million - $5.8 million

= $1.0 million

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Alex73 [517]

Answer:

The question is not complete.

Here is the complete question:

In explaining the evolution of money, the text claims that

A) government regulation is the most important factor.

B) commodity money, because it is valued more highly, tends to drive out paper money.

C) new forms of money evolve to lower transaction costs.

D) all of the above are true.

Here is the answer:

C.new forms of money evolve to lower transaction costs.

Explanation:

Before the advert of money, transactions between individuals were based on exchange goods for goods, a system called trade by barter. The system of trade by barter permits individual who has a particular good but desire another to exchange the goods he has with another person who has the goods he desires.

However, this system has a major flaw: transaction costs were higher.

The system of trade by barter only works if the two people involved has complimentary possession of goods that the other wants and be able to locate each other. With this high transaction costs, exchange of goods was difficult to carry out.

On this background, money evolve to lower this transaction costs and make exchange of goods possible without the need to have what another person wants and the trouble of finding where they are.

4 0
3 years ago
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You just won the grand prize in a national writing contest! As your prize, you will receive $500 a month for 50 months. If you c
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

The correct answer is B.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cash flow= $500

Number of months= 50

Monthly interest rate= 0.07/12= 0.00583

First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= cash flow

FV= {500*[(1.00583^50) - 1]} / 0.00583

FV= $28,928.06

Now, the present value:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 28,928.06/(1.00583^50)

PV= $21,631.67

5 0
3 years ago
An industry is composed of 10 firms, all with equal sales. the four-firm concentration ratio in this industry is
Klio2033 [76]
The four-firm ratio is the concentration ratio between the total sales accumulated by the four largest industrial firms to the total sales of all firms present in an industry. This translates to the mathematical expression of 

           four-firm ratio = (total sales of four largest firms / total sales)

Since, we are given that all 10 firms have the same sales, we let the sales be equal to x.

    total sales of four largest firms = 4x
    total sales  = 10x

The ratio is then,
 
                   four-firm ratio = 4/10

Converting this to percentage will yield us an answer of 40%. 
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3 years ago
Freytag Corporation's variable overhead is applied on the basis of direct labor-hours. The company has established the following
Serjik [45]

Answer:

a. -$783 Unfavorable

b. 550 Favorable

Explanation:

a. The computation of Variable Overhead Rate Variance is shown below:-

Variable Overhead Rate Variance = Actual hours × (Standard Variable Overhead rate per hour - Actual Variable Overhead rate per hour)

= 8,700 × ($4.10 - ($36,540 ÷ 8,700)

=  8,700 × ($4.10 - $4.19)

= 8,700 × -$0.09

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b. The computation of Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance is shown below:-

Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance = Standard Variable Overhead Rate per Hour ×  (Standard Hours for Actual Production - Actual Hours)

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= 5.5 × (8,800 - 8,700)

= 5.5 × 100

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vredina [299]

Answer: Constraint

Explanation:

The company data is not attached but this should be correct.

Constraints enable companies and entities to engage in sensitivity analysis which would enable them find out optimal quantities of production and production strategy.

Constraints show how much of something is needed to get something done so in making time the constraint, the company is trying to find out how much time is needed in the fabrication department for goods in order for profits to be maximized.

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