Answer:
1/26=4/104
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of pulling a diamond if completely shuffled properly, is a 1/4. Because there are 4 suits. This is only if, there are no jokers.
And the probability of pulling a jack, is a 4/51. Because there are 4 jacks out of the 51 cards, but you already pulled out a diamond card, so you take 1 out.
Multiply them together, and you will get 4/104 = 1/26
There is a 1/26 chance of pulling out a diamond card, then a jack.
Answer:
39.988
Step-by-step explanation:
Thousandths you mean?
If so: 39.988 because 39.987 round up.
Answer: Vertex (-3, 1) and x-intercept (-4, 0), (-2, 0)
Well, the 2 in 582 is in the ones place and the 2 in528 is in the tens place so
2 and 20
one is 10 times the other
they are both multiples of 2
one is a prime number and the other is a compsite