Answer:
d. $1050.
Explanation:
We multiply each account balance by the expected uncollectible amount and then addd them to get the expected total for doutful accounts
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}Date&Amount&Expected&uncollectible\\$not due&10000&0.02&200\\$up to 30&5000&0.05&250\\$up to 60&3000&0.1&300\\$more than 61&800&0.5&400\\&&Total&1150\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7DDate%26Amount%26Expected%26uncollectible%5C%5C%24not%20due%2610000%260.02%26200%5C%5C%24up%20to%2030%265000%260.05%26250%5C%5C%24up%20to%2060%263000%260.1%26300%5C%5C%24more%20than%2061%26800%260.5%26400%5C%5C%26%26Total%261150%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
Balance of the allowance account: 100
The expense will be the adjustment made on the allowance to get the expected balance of 1,150
1,150 - 100 = 1,050
we increase the allowance bu 1,050 to get our expected uncollectible fro maccounts receivable agaisnt the bad debt expense ofthe period.
Answer:
17.10%
Explanation:
The computation of the cost of equity is shown below:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
= 6.10% + 1.25 × 8.8%
= 6.10% + 11%
= 17.10%
The (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) is also known as market risk premium and the same is applied.
All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
Answer:
$125,000
Explanation:
Opening values of;
Total assets = $120,000
Total liabilities = $40,000
Total equity = $120,000 - $40,000 = $80,000
During the year,
Total revenues = $140,000
Total expenses = $50,000
Withdrawal by owner = $45,000
The amount withdrawn by the owner reduces the owners equity. This may be deducted from the net income.
Net income from the year = $140,000 - $50,000 - $45,000
= $45,000
This will be added to the opening owner's equity to get the closing owner's equity.
Owner's equity at the end of the year = $80,000 + $45,000
= $125,000
Answer:
The capacity of the lathe department is 3200 parts/week. The workers capacity is the bottleneck.
Explanation:
In this case we have to compare the machine capacity and the worker capacity, and detecting shich one is limitating the capacity of the department.
Machine capacity
The time it takes for a machine to process a batch is
In 40-hour week, every machine can process 2 batches/week.
With 20 machines, the capacity of the department is 2*20=40 batch/week (4000 pcs/week).
Workers capacity
With 40-hour week and 5-hours setup, every worker can make (40/5)=8 setups a week.
If the department has 4 workers, the amount of setups that can be done is 4*8=32 setups/week. That means that only 32 batches can be processed per week (3200 pcs/week).
The workers resource is the limitating capacity, and therefore the capacity of the lathe department.
Answer:
Correct option is (D)
Explanation:
Total cost is a sum of Total fixed cost and total variable cost. Fixed cost does not change with the change in number of units produced. Variable cost on the other hand increases with the increase in production.
So, initially fixed cost is higher than variable cost at a certain production level. As production increases, fixed cost is spread across units and per unit fixed cost falls but variable cost keeps increasing, so total cost keep increasing with increase in production because of variable cost component.
