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3 years ago

Which explains why light bends when it passes from air to water?

Physics

2 answers:

zhenek [66]3 years ago

5 0

Answer: The correct answer is "it changes speed".

Explanation:

Refraction: it is the phenomenon which occurs when the light rays travel from one medium to the another medium.

In refraction, the light rays get bend due to the change in the speed of light rays.

In reflection, the light ray is reflected back in the same medium. The light ray reflected back after striking the obstacle without getting absorb or transmit in it.

Therefore, light bends when it passes from air to water due to change in the speed.

Serggg [28]3 years ago

4 0

Answer: D
Key thing to keep note, is "refraction"...
Look at some experiments on YouTube, it's helps me a lot.

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Water has a mass per mole of 18.0 g/mol, and each water mo- lecule (H2O) has 10 electrons. (a) How many electrons are there in o

Dovator [93]

Answer:

a) There are $3,35*10^{26}$ electrons in a liter of water.

b) The net charge is -53601707,1 C

Explanation:

a) To find out how many electrons are in a liter of water (equivalent to 1000 grams of water), we have to find out how many molecules of water there are and then multiply it by 10 (e- per molecule).

We can find out how many molecules are by finding the number of moles and then multiplying it by Avogadro's number (number of elements per mol):

$e^{-}= \frac{m_{water} }{M_{water} } * Avogadro* \frac{e^{-} }{molecule}= \frac{1000g }{18g/mol} * 6,022*10^{23} * \frac{10e^{-} }{molecule}=3,35*10^{26} e^{-}$

b) As all electrons have the same charge, in order to find the net charge of those electrons we have to multiply the charge of a single electron by the number of electrons:

$Net charge= -1,602*10^{-19} \frac{C}{e^{-} } *3,35*10^{26} e^{-}=-53601707,1 C$

An important clarification is that while the net charge may seem huge, water as a whole is a neutral medium, because there are as many protons as there are electrons, and as they have the same charge, the net charge of water is 0.

8 0

4 years ago

Find the height or length of these natural wonders in km, m, and cm.A. A cave system with a mapped length of 354 miles.B. A wate

cricket20 [7]

Explanation:

Some standard unit conversion are 1 mile = 1.609344 km, 1 ft.= 30.48 cm,

1 km= 1000 m or 1 m = 0.001 km and 1 m= 100 cm or 1 cm=0.01 m.

Now, use these values to convert the given lengths.

A. length of cave = 5 miles (given)

From standard value 1 mile = 1.609344 km

$\Rightarrow$ 5 miles = $\times$ 1.609344 km= 8.04672 km,

$\Rightarrow$ 5 miles =8.04672 $\times$ 1000 m= 8046.72 m [ as 1 km = 1000 m]

$\Rightarrow$ 5 miles = 8046.72 $\times$ 100 cm=804672 cm

B. Height of the waterfall = 1235 ft. (given)

1 ft.= 30.48 cm [ from standard value]

$\Rightarrow$ 1235.2 ft.= 1235.2 $\times$ 30.48 cm=37648.896 cm,

$\Rightarrow$ 1235.2 ft.=37648.896 $\times$ 0.01 m =376.48896 m [ as 1 cm = 0.01 m]

$\Rightarrow$ 1235.2 ft.=376.48896 $\times$ 0.001 km =0.37648896 km [ as 1 m = 0.001 km]

C. Height of the mountain= 21320 ft. (given)

From standard value: 1 ft.= 30.48 cm

$\Rightarrow$ 21320 ft.= 21320 $\times$ 30.48 cm=649833.6 cm,

$\Rightarrow$ 21320 ft.=649833.6 $\times$ 0.01 m =6498.336 m [ as 1 cm = 0.01 m]

$\Rightarrow$ 21320 ft.=6498.336 $\times$ 0.001 km =6.498336 km [ as 1 m = 0.001 km].

D. Depth of canyon =6630 ft.

From standard value: 1 ft.= 30.48 cm

$\Rightarrow$ 6630 ft.= 6630 $\times$ 30.48 cm=202082.4 cm,

$\Rightarrow$ 6630 ft.=202082.4 $\times$ 0.01 m =2020.824 m [ as 1 cm = 0.01 m]

$\Rightarrow$ 6630 ft.=2020.824 $\times$ 0.001 km =2.020824 km [ as 1 m = 0.001 km].

4 0

4 years ago

Explain how electromagnetic waves are produced.

Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

Explanation:

An electromagnetic wave can be created by accelerating charges; moving charges back and forth will produce oscillating electric and magnetic fields, and these travel at the speed of light.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A dog is running at 15 m/s and then slows down to 10 m/s. It takes him two seconds to do this. What is the dog's acceleration

OLga [1]

Explanation:

a = (Vf-Vi)/t

= (10m/s - 15m/s)/2s

a = -5 / 2 m/s^2

• so the dog diaccelerate at the rate of 5/2 m/s^2

hope it helps

6 0

3 years ago

Convert 0.0345mW<br> to MW

Rina8888 [55]

Answer:

3.45e-11MV

that is ur answer

6 0

3 years ago