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ohaa [14]
3 years ago
5

An urn contains six chips, numbered 1 through 6. two are chosen at random and their numbers are added together. what is the prob

ability that the resulting sum is equal to 5?
Mathematics
1 answer:
vitfil [10]3 years ago
7 0
<span>2/15 if drawn without replacement. 1/9 if drawn with replacement. Assuming that the chips are drawn without replacement, there are 6 * 5 different possibilities. And that's a low enough number to exhaustively enumerate them. So they are: 1,2 : 1,3 : 1,4 : 1,5 : 1,6 2,1 : 2,3 : 2,4 : 2,5 : 2,6 3,1 : 3,2 : 3.4 : 3,5 : 3,6 4,1 : 4,2 : 4.3 : 4,5 : 4,6 5,1 : 5,2 : 5.3 : 5,4 : 5,6 6,1 : 6,2 : 6.3 : 6,4 : 6,5 Of the above 30 possible draws, there are 4 that add up to 5. So the probability is 4/30 = 2/15 If the draw is done with replacement, then there are 36 possible draws. Once again, small enough to exhaustively list, they are: 1,1 : 1,2 : 1,3 : 1,4 : 1,5 : 1,6 2,1 : 2,2 : 2,3 : 2,4 : 2,5 : 2,6 3,1 : 3,2 : 3,3 : 3.4 : 3,5 : 3,6 4,1 : 4,2 : 4.3 : 4,4 : 4,5 : 4,6 5,1 : 5,2 : 5.3 : 5,4 : 5,5 : 5,6 6,1 : 6,2 : 6.3 : 6,4 : 6,5 : 6,6 And of the above 36 possibilities, exactly 4 add up to 5. So you have 4/36 = 1/9</span>
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aksik [14]

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Imagine you have 2 slots or boxes that are empty. They represent the possible choices for the letter you pick. For example, you can place B in slot 1 and D in slot 2. There are 5 choices for slot 1 (A,B,C,D,E) and four choices for slot 2. Why 4? Because after we pick the letter for slot 1, we have one less letter to pick from. We can't reuse that letter.

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4 0
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A raffle prize of 14x^2/15dollars is to be divided among 7x people. Write an expression for the amount of money that each person
vladimir2022 [97]

For this case we must divide the following expression:

\frac {\frac {14x ^ 2} {15}} {7x}

And in this way we get the amount of money that each person will receive.

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Answer:

0.133x

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3 years ago
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