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MAVERICK [17]
3 years ago
9

How do I solve the equation; 6(x^2-2)=12

Mathematics
1 answer:
anyanavicka [17]3 years ago
4 0
Ok so first we simplify <span>6(x^2-2)=12   6*x^2 = 6^2 and 6*-2 = -12 = 6x^2 -12 = 12 do you understand?</span>
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Leviafan [203]
200.7 I hope this is the answer
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4 years ago
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Pierce is making a rectangular frame for a photo collage that has a perimeter of 72.2 72.2 inches. The length of the frame is 20
Allushta [10]

Answer:

P = 2x+2y   (1)

And we know that the lenght is y = 20.3. If we solve for x from equation (1) we got:

P-2y = 2x

\frac{P-2y}{2} =x

And replacing we got:

x = \frac{72.2 in -2*20.3 in}{2}= 15.8 in

And the width for this case would be 15.8 in

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we know that the photo is rectangular. Let's define:

x = the width,  y= the length

And we know that the perimeter is given by:

P = 2x+2y   (1)

And we know that the lenght is y = 20.3. If we solve for x from equation (1) we got:

P-2y = 2x

\frac{P-2y}{2} =x

And replacing we got:

x = \frac{72.2 in -2*20.3 in}{2}= 15.8 in

And the width for this case would be 15.8 in

4 0
4 years ago
A survey report states that 70% of adult women visit their doctors for a physical examination at least once in two years. If 20
irakobra [83]

Answer:

a) 0.3921 = 39.21% probability that fewer than 14 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

b) 0.107 = 10.7% probability that at least 17 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each women, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they visit their doctors for a physical examination at least once in two years, or they do not. The probability of a woman visiting their doctor at least once in this period is independent of any other women. This means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

70% of adult women visit their doctors for a physical examination at least once in two years.

This means that p = 0.7

20 adult women

This means that n = 20

(a) Fewer than 14 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

This is:

P(X < 14) = 1 - P(X \geq 14)

In which

P(X \geq 14) = P(X = 14) + P(X = 15) + P(X = 16) + P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20)

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 14) = C_{20,14}.(0.7)^{14}.(0.3)^{6} = 0.1916

P(X = 15) = C_{20,15}.(0.7)^{15}.(0.3)^{5} = 0.1789

P(X = 16) = C_{20,16}.(0.7)^{16}.(0.3)^{4} = 0.1304

P(X = 17) = C_{20,14}.(0.7)^{17}.(0.3)^{3} = 0.0716

P(X = 18) = C_{20,18}.(0.7)^{18}.(0.3)^{2} = 0.0278

P(X = 19) = C_{20,19}.(0.7)^{19}.(0.3)^{1} = 0.0068

P(X = 20) = C_{20,20}.(0.7)^{20}.(0.3)^{0} = 0.0008

So

P(X \geq 14) = P(X = 14) + P(X = 15) + P(X = 16) + P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20) = 0.1916 + 0.1789 + 0.1304 + 0.0716 + 0.0278 + 0.0068 + 0.0008 = 0.6079

P(X < 14) = 1 - P(X \geq 14) = 1 - 0.6079 = 0.3921

0.3921 = 39.21% probability that fewer than 14 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

(b) At least 17 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years

P(X \geq 17) = P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20)

From the values found in item (a).

P(X \geq 17) = P(X = 17) + P(X = 18) + P(X = 19) + P(X = 20) = 0.0716 + 0.0278 + 0.0068 + 0.0008 = 0.107

0.107 = 10.7% probability that at least 17 of them have had a physical examination in the past two years.

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Lera25 [3.4K]

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