Answer:
15.542%
Step-by-step explanation:
For uneven cash flows such as those in this problem, there is no formula for "internal rate of return" (IRR). It must be computed graphically or iteratively. Spreadsheets and financial calculators are equipped to do this calculation. Attached is the result of the calculation done by a graphing calculator.
The sum of "present value" of each of the cash flows is zero when the discount rate is the IRR.
It looks like the differential equation is

Factorize the right side by grouping.


Now we can separate variables as

Integrate both sides.



You could go on to solve for
explicitly as a function of
, but that involves a special function called the "product logarithm" or "Lambert W" function, which is probably beyond your scope.
Answer:
8
Step-by-step explanation:
The model is p(x) = 75,000 ∛(x - 1940)
Now use p(x) = 245,000 and solve for x
245,000 = 75,000 ∛(x - 1940) =
245,000 / 75,000 = ∛(x - 1940)
49/15 = ∛(x - 1940)
x - 1940 = [49/15]^3 = 34.86
x = 1940 + 34.86 = 1974.85
Then, the answer is 1975 (option b)
Answer:
r = - 
Step-by-step explanation:
8r + 6 = 2 ( subtract 6 from both sides )
8r = - 4 ( divide both sides by 8 )
r =
= - 