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OverLord2011 [107]
4 years ago
11

A rectangle has a length that is three feet more than twice it’s width. If the area of the rectangle is 90 square feet, then alg

ebraically determines its width and length
Mathematics
1 answer:
Mkey [24]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Length=27feet\\Width=12 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Let, the length of the rectangle be 'L'

and, width of the rectangle be 'W'

length=2*Width+3

L=(2W+3) feet\\\\

Area of the rectangle= 90 square feet

Area of a rectangle = Length*Width

90=(2W+3)*W\\\\2W^2+3W=90\\\\2W^2+3W-90=0\\\\

Using Factorization Method to solve quadratic equation:

2W^2-12W+15W-90=0

Taking common from the equation:

2W(W-12)+15(W-12)=90\\\\(W-12)(2W+15)=0\\\\W-12=0\\\\W=12 feet

OR

2W+15=0\\\\2W=-15\\\\W=-7.5 feet

The Width cannot be negative, therefore Width(W)=12 feet

Length=2*Width+3\\\\=(12*2)+3\\\\=24+3\\\\=27 feet

Length=27feet\\Width=12 feet

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Flip

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
What is the probability of getting a 'six' of heart from a deck of 52 cards where the King, Queen and Jack of Clubs has been rem
TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

1/49

Step-by-step explanation:

If i’m wrong my bad, but probability is desired out comes over possible. So there are 52 cards in a deck and there are 1 special card each in a suit= 3 or 4 but we are focusing on three, 52-3= 49 then there is one desired outcome since it’s “a” six of hearts. It’s 1/49

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3 years ago
Jayne has 3 quarters, 2 dimes, 1 nickel and 2 pennies in her pocket.how many different amounts of money can she make using some
Papessa [141]

Upper limit: There is a logical maximum that it could be. You can have 0, 1, 2, 3 quarters, 0, 1, 2 dimes, 0, 1 nickels, and 0, 1, 2 pennies. This is a total of 4*3*2*3 = 72. Of course, not all of these are distinct; this is why the answer is smaller. Also, this problem isn't counting $0.00 as a valid combination. Now that we have an idea of how the problems works, lets simplify it a little.

 

Pennies. Since you can have 0, 1, 2 pennies, there will be NO conflicts. (It takes 5 pennies to cause a problem, since then it will conflict with the nickel). It means that for all combinations of quarters, nickels, and dimes, we can have 0, 1, or 2 pennies. This means we can handle the other three coins and handle the pennies later. This brings the upper limit down to 24.

 

One combination has no nickels and no dimes, and another, equivalent combination has one fewer quarters, one nickel, and two dimes. There are three ways for the first combination: 1, 2, 3 quarters only. It will bring down the total to 21.

 

The pennies we have 21*3=63 possibilities.

General process:

Simplify the problem. (Pennies didn’t cause any conflict so they just make 3 times as many combination)

Determine the maximum possible combinations. This is a few multiplications. Not very difficult

Count the duplicates. This is often simpler because there are usually not that many of them. In this case, just three.

 

Put it back together.

<span>Of course, sometimes there will be so many conflicts that anything short of listing them is unreasonable. This was quite a bit more difficult that it would have been to just list those 62 possibilities.  </span>

8 0
3 years ago
Jack recieved $600 for his birthday. If he saves it in a bank account with 8% interest compounded yearly, how much money will he
Gwar [14]

so 21 - 13, the money will be invested for 8 years.


\bf ~~~~~~ \textit{Compound Interest Earned Amount} \\\\ A=P\left(1+\frac{r}{n}\right)^{nt} \quad  \begin{cases} A=\textit{accumulated amount}\\ P=\textit{original amount deposited}\to &\$600\\ r=rate\to 8\%\to \frac{8}{100}\to &0.08\\ n= \begin{array}{llll} \textit{times it compounds per year}\\ \textit{yearly, thus once} \end{array}\to &1\\ t=years\to &8 \end{cases} \\\\\\ A=600\left(1+\frac{0.08}{1}\right)^{1\cdot 8}\implies A=600(1.08)^8\implies A\approx 1110.558126

8 0
3 years ago
5. Arrival problems usually follow a Poisson distribution, but in this case the time between arrivals of customers at a bank dur
Finger [1]

Answer:

0.5 or 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

For any given value of 'x' representing the time between arrivals of two customers. If 0 < x <120, then the cumulative distribution function is:

\frac{x-0}{120-0}=\frac{x}{120}

Therefore, the probability that the time between the arrivals of two customers will be more than 60 seconds is determined by:

P(X>60) = 1 -\frac{60}{120}\\P(X>60) = 0.5

The probability is 0.5 or 50%.

5 0
3 years ago
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