Answer:
20
Step-by-step explanation:
20 percent of 40 is 5
so 20 is d answer
<h3>
Answer: 42</h3>
Explanation:
We have y = -0.9x^2 + 76x - 250 which is in the form y = ax^2+bx+c
where,
The vertex (h,k) is when the profit is maxed out.
h = -b/(2a)
h = -76/(2(-0.9))
h = 42.222 approximately
Let's plug in x values around x = 42
Try x = 41
y = -0.9x^2 + 76x - 250
y = -0.9(41)^2 + 76(41) - 250
y = 1353.10
Now try x = 42
y = -0.9x^2 + 76x - 250
y = -0.9(42)^2 + 76(42) - 250
y = 1354.4
Now try x = 43
y = -0.9x^2 + 76x - 250
y = -0.9(43)^2 + 76(43) - 250
y = 1353.9
We see that the largest profit happens when x = 42.
Answer:
9x5=45 D is ur answer
Step-by-step explanation:
brainliest???
Let the balance = Y and the number of weeks = x
She takes out 15 per week, so multiply 15 by x ( the number of weeks) to get 15x.
You would then want to subtract that from the amount she started with in her account.
The equation becomes: Y = 150 - 15x
Quotient of means divide (place division symbol where "and" is located)
-6 ÷ y or
