Answer: A
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
1 D. 400 spins
2 C.4/20
3 A. 6/20
Step-by-step explanation:
1
The more times you run a probability-based trial, the more likely you are to get close to the theoretical frequency.
2
Since 1 and 2 represent goals, just find the options that have three/four 2's and 1's. These are 5212, 2152, 2512, and 2112. Since there are 4 options out of 20, we can say our probability is 4/20
C
Since 1 and 2 represent goals, we have to find the options where there are no 1's or 2's. These are 6643, 3554, 4533, 6634, 4536, and 5546. Since there are 6 options out of 20, we can say our probability is 6/20
Answer: 1.1
Step-by-step explanation:
2.4 - 1.3 = 1.1
Answer: h=12.8in
a Base edge 15 in
V Volume 960 in³
Using the formula
V=a2h
3
Solving for h
h=3V
a2=3·960
152=12.8in
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
(-2+-5) equals -7.
Because the signs are the same, we dont change it.
(3+5) equals 8. Same like the other equation, the signs are the same so we do not change it.
Now we do (-7+8) The answer will be 1. Lets use a little graph since its hard to explain.
-8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Mark -7 anyway you want. (Circle it, draw a line under it, what ever you want.)
Now Move the line 8 times.
When you do that your line will stop at 1.
And thats how you do it.
Step-by-step explanation:
