Answer:
the bottom section
Step-by-step explanation:
cause
Answer:
1000
Step-by-step explanation:
The theory is that <em><u>"experimental probability goes closer and closer in value to the theoretical probability as the number of trials increase."</u></em>
So <em>more trials means more they are closer and equivalent.</em>
So out of the answer choices, the largest number of trials is 1000.
1000 is the correct answer.
x⁸ + 48x⁷ + 1008x⁶ + 12096x⁵ + 90720x⁴ + 435456x³ + 1306368x² + 2239488x + 1679616
<u>Explanation:</u>
We know
(x+y)ⁿ = ∑ ⁿCₐxⁿ⁻ᵃyᵃ
and ⁿCₐ = n! / ( a! ) . ( n-a )!
So,
(x+6)⁸ = ⁸C₀x⁸ + ⁸C₁(x)⁸⁻¹(6)¹ + ⁸C₂(x)⁸⁻²(6)² + ⁸C₃(x)⁸⁻³(6)³ + .......+ ⁸C₈(x)⁸⁻⁸(6)⁸
= ₓ⁸ + 8x⁷ₓ 6 + 28x⁶ₓ 36 + 56x⁵ₓ 216 + 70x⁴ₓ 1296 + 56x³ₓ 7776 + 28x²ₓ 46656 + 8x . 279936 + 1679616
= x⁸ + 48x⁷ + 1008x⁶ + 12096x⁵ + 90720x⁴ + 435456x³ + 1306368x² + 2239488x + 1679616
Thus, the expansion of ( x+6)⁸ using binomial theorm is
x⁸ + 48x⁷ + 1008x⁶ + 12096x⁵ + 90720x⁴ + 435456x³ + 1306368x² + 2239488x + 1679616
To find the answer,we can set up two equations:
Let the integer be x and y seperately,and x be the larger number:
x+y=74
y=74-x....(1)
x-2y=26...(2)
Put (1) into (2):
x-2(74-x)=26
x-148+2x=26
3x=26+148
x=174/3
x=58
Put the above answer into (1):
y=74-58
y=16
Therefore,the answer is x=58, y=16.
Hope it helps!
