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ss7ja [257]
2 years ago
13

An investor in a T-bill earns interest by _________. receiving interest payments every 90 days receiving dividend payments every

30 days converting the T-bill at maturity into a higher-valued T-note buying the bill at a discount from the face value to be received at maturity.
Business
1 answer:
pashok25 [27]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

buying the bill at a discount from the face value to be received at maturity.

Explanation:

Treasury bills also referred to as T-bills are short term financial instruments. T-bills are issued at a discount from the face value or par value of the bill. Therefore, a T-bill which has a face value of $2000 may have a purchase price of $1,500. The investor will buy the T-bill for $1,500 and upon maturity of the instrument, the investor will receive $2000. The difference between the purchase price of $1,500 and the amount received at maturity of $2000 is interest earned by the investor.

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Game theory is:A. a strategy that requires cooperation when multiple parties are involved.B. a methodology to accomplish winning
Makovka662 [10]

Answer:

C. the study of strategy and strategic behavior.

Explanation:

Game theory is the study of strategy and strategic behavior. It is assumed that the parties involved are rational. The payoff of a player of a game is determined by the actions of others in the game.

A popular example of game theory is the prisoners dilemma.

A game theory can involve more than two players.

An example of prisoners dilemma:

There are two prisoners - if both confess to a crime, they both get 5 years in prison. If both prisoners don't confess they are set free. If one confess and the other doesn't, the prisoner that confesses 2 years in prison while the other prisoner that didn't confess gets 10 years in prison.

The dominant strategy which is the best option for the prisoner regardless of what the other prisoner does is to confess.

The Nash equilibrium is for both prisoners to defect.

I hope my answer helps you

6 0
2 years ago
Taylor and Sons buys equipment on Aug. 1, 2008 for $100,000 cash. They estimatethe equipment will have a salvage value of $13,00
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

Journal Entry

Dr.  Depreciation Expense        $7,250

Cr. Accumulated Depreciation $7,250

Explanation:

Depreciation is a expense which is charged against an asset over its useful life due to wear and tear of that asset. This expense is recorded as and Expense in Income statement and accumulated in an contra asset account asset account until the disposal of the asset.

Cost of Equipment = $100,000

Useful life of the asset = 5 years

Salvage value of the asset = $13,000

Depreciable value of the asset will be expenses equally every year over 5 years.

Depreciable value = Cost of the asset - Salvage value = $100,000 - $13,000 = $87,000

Depreciation Expense = Depreciable Value / Useful Life of the asset = $87,000 / 5 years = $17,400 per year

As only 5 month have been passed in 2008, the depreciation expense account will be charged as follow

Depreciation charge in 2008 = $17,400 x 5 / 12 = $7,250

8 0
3 years ago
Haven Company uses the percentage of receivables method for recording bad debt expense. The accounts receivable balance is $600,
Katena32 [7]

Answer:

Debit Bad debt expense   $19,000

Credit Allowance for doubtful debt   $19,000

Explanation:

When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.  

To account for this, debit bad debit expense and credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.

Where a debit that had previously been determined to have gone bad gets settled, debit cash and credit bad debt expense.

Amount that may be uncollectible

= 4% *  $600,000

= $24,000

Given that the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a $5,000 credit balance before adjustment, the additional amount to be adjusted for

= $24,000 - $5,000

= $19,000

7 0
2 years ago
It is May 18, 2017. You have a $10,000 semi-annual bond with a coupon rate of 10.375% which matures May 5, 2044. The bond is pri
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

-3.91%.

Explanation:

The Duration Adjustment (% change in bond price) is given by:

= (Duration) * (Change in yield in %)

= -(7.81) x (0.5%)

= -3.91%

The Convexity Adjustment is given by:

= 0.5 * Convexity *  (Change in yield, as a fraction)^2

= 0.5 * 99.87 * (0.005)^2

= 0.5 * 99.87 * 0.000025

= 0.001248375

= 0.0012%

Thus, the convexity correction is 0.0012%

Thus, the total change in bond price = -3.91% + 0.0012% = -3.91%.

3 0
2 years ago
Venzuela Company’s net income for 2020 is $50,000. The only potentially dilutive securities outstanding were 1,000 options issue
aev [14]

Answer:

$4.67 per share

Explanation:

The calculation of the diluted earning per share is given below:

= (Total income - preference dividends) ÷ (outstanding shares + diluted shares)

where,

Total income is $50,000

Outstanding shares is 10,000

And, the diluted shares is computed by following calculations

Amount paid towards shares = Options issued × Exercise price per share

= 1,000 × $6

= $6,000

And,

Value of options = Amount paid towards shares ÷ Current market price

= $6,000 ÷ $20

= 300

Therefore,

Diluted shares is

= Options issued - value of options

= 1,000 - 300

= 700

So Diluted Earnings per share is

= ($50,000) ÷ (10,000 + 700)

= $4.67 per share

4 0
3 years ago
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