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marta [7]
2 years ago
6

Taxes cause deadweight losses because they

Business
2 answers:
Ray Of Light [21]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is C. All of the other options are correct.

Explanation:

In economics, it means that there is a loss of surplus because the imposition of taxes discourages the exchange of goods and services. This can be interpreted in the behavior of the consumer and seller, since their action is executed directly in the buying and selling processes. When the buyer's benefit from acquiring a good is modified by a high tax rate, then a decline in the purchase may occur to avoid incurring high costs.

vitfil [10]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

All of the other options are correct.

Explanation:

Deadweight losses can be described as losses that is made to the economy, this is as a result of taxes or price control. Deadweight losses occur when supply and demand are not balanced, if this happens it will eventually lead to market inefficiency.

Taxes can be defined as the amount of money charged by the government which is above the selling price of a particular good or service.

Taxes can lead to deadweight loss when there is an increase in the price of a product which will eventually lead to a drastic decrease in the demand of the product.

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Cullumber Company received proceeds of $1176000 on 10-year, 6% bonds issued on January 1, 2019. The bonds had a face value of $1
Alik [6]

Answer:

$74,880

Explanation:

The computation of the amount of interest Cullumber must pay the bondholders is shown below:

= Face value of the bond × interest rate

where,

Face value of the bond is $1,248,000

And the interest rate is 6%

So, the amount of interest paid is

= $1,248,000 × 6%

= $74,880

We simply multiplied the face value of the bond with the interest rate so that the amount of interest expense could come

6 0
2 years ago
Daphne, a victim of identity theft, can’t currently qualify for a loan but wants to buy her friend’s condo for $90,000. She coul
stiks02 [169]

Answer:

<em>an option agreement. </em>

Explanation:

The <em>option agreement</em> in the arena of financial derivatives <em>is a contract between two parties that gives one party the right, but not the obligation, to buy an asset from the other party or to sell an asset to the other</em>.

It outlines the agreed-upon price and the transaction's future date.

8 0
2 years ago
An example of this operating expense is checkout counters.
ollegr [7]
Im pretty sure its 2) Fixtures

Sorry if its wrong
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pauley Company needs to determine a markup for a new product. Pauley expects to sell 22,000 units and wants a target profit of $
Sever21 [200]

Answer:

variable markup % = 60%

Explanation:

total units sold 22,000

total costs associated with selling the 22,000 units:

variable production costs $18 x 22,000 = $396,000

variable S&A costs $13 x 22,000 = $286,000

fixed overhead = $20,500

fixed S&A = $36,700

total costs = $739,200

total cost per unit = $33.60

selling price = $33.60 + $16 = $49.60

markup percentage = [(sales price - unit cost) / unit cost] x 100

the total markup % = [49.60 - 33.60) / 33.60] x 100 = 47.62%

but since we are going to calculate the markup percentage solely based on variable costs, then:

variable cost per unit = $31

selling price = $49.60

the variable markup % = [49.60 - 31) / 31] x 100 = 60%

8 0
3 years ago
Why do lenders request to look at your credit report before you can borrow money?
densk [106]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": They want to see how responsible you are in making payments on existing debt.

Explanation:

Credit reports are documents displaying the credit history of individuals. They allow lenders to know what the credit behavior of an individual is, thus, have an idea if that person could repay the amount of a loan or is likely to fall into debt. The three major credit bureaus in the U.S. are <em>Equifax, Experian, </em>and <em>TransUnion</em>.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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